Q1 · Brachial Plexus
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Showing 1–15 of 930 questions · page 1 of 62
Q2 · Brachial Plexus
EasyAfter a fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus, a patient cannot abduct the arm beyond the first few degrees and has numbness over the lateral shoulder. Which nerve is injured?
Q3 · Upper Limb Nerves
EasyA mid-shaft humeral fracture is complicated by wrist drop with sensory loss over the dorsal first web space. Which nerve runs in the spiral groove and is injured here?
Q4 · Upper Limb Nerves
MediumA patient struck on the medial epicondyle develops clawing of the ring and little fingers with sensory loss over the medial one and a half digits. Which structure is affected?
Q5 · Brachial Plexus
MediumFollowing axillary lymph node clearance, a patient shows winging of the scapula when pushing against a wall. Which nerve and root value is involved?
Q6 · Cranial Nerves
EasyThe maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through which opening?
Q7 · Cranial Nerves
EasyWhich cranial nerve passes through the foramen ovale?
Q8 · Cranial Nerves
MediumA skull base lesion causes loss of the gag reflex, hoarseness and weakness of trapezius and sternocleidomastoid. Which foramen is involved?
Q9 · Cranial Nerves
MediumWhich of the following does NOT pass through the superior orbital fissure?
Q10 · Cranial Nerves
HardWhich cranial nerve is the only one to emerge from the dorsal surface of the brainstem and supplies a muscle on the opposite side?
Q11 · Cavernous Sinus
HardWhich nerve lies free within the cavernous sinus rather than embedded in its lateral wall, making it the one most often affected first?
Q12 · Femoral Triangle
EasyWhich structure forms the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle?
Q13 · Femoral Triangle
MediumWhich of the following lies OUTSIDE the femoral sheath?
Q14 · Lower Limb
MediumWhich nerve accompanies the femoral artery through the adductor canal and continues to the medial leg?
Q15 · Lower Limb
EasyA tight plaster cast around the neck of the fibula results in foot drop and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot. Which nerve is compressed?
Q16 · Lower Limb
MediumIn most people the sciatic nerve leaves the pelvis in which relationship to piriformis?
Q17 · Thoracic Duct
EasyThe thoracic duct drains into the venous system at which site?
Q18 · Lymphatics
MediumLymph from the right lower limb ultimately drains through which duct?
Q19 · Coronary Circulation
EasyThe anterior two thirds of the interventricular septum is supplied by which artery?
Q20 · Coronary Circulation
MediumIn the majority of people the sinuatrial node is supplied by a branch of which vessel?
Q21 · Coronary Circulation
HardCoronary dominance is defined by which artery gives rise to the posterior interventricular branch. What proportion of hearts are right dominant?
Q22 · Mediastinum
HardThe arch of the azygos vein passes over the root of the right lung to join the superior vena cava at approximately which vertebral level?
Q23 · Inguinal Region
MediumThe deep inguinal ring is an opening in which layer?
Q24 · Inguinal Region
MediumA hernia sac that emerges medial to the inferior epigastric vessels is best classified as which type?
Q25 · Portal Circulation
MediumOesophageal varices in portal hypertension form through anastomosis between the left gastric vein and which vessel?
Q26 · Gastrointestinal Blood Supply
EasyThe foregut derivatives are supplied by which artery?
Q27 · Gastrointestinal Blood Supply
EasyWhich artery supplies the gut from the distal duodenum to the proximal two thirds of the transverse colon?
Q28 · Kidney
MediumAt the renal hilum, what is the arrangement of structures from anterior to posterior?
Q29 · Embryology
EasyThe first pharyngeal arch is supplied by which nerve?
Q30 · Embryology
EasyThe stapedius muscle develops from which pharyngeal arch?
Q31 · Embryology
MediumThe muscles of the sixth pharyngeal arch are supplied by which nerve?
Q32 · Embryology
EasyMeckel diverticulum is a persistent remnant of which embryological structure?
Q33 · Embryology
EasyAfter birth the ductus arteriosus becomes which adult structure?
Q34 · Embryology
MediumThe nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc is derived from which structure?
Q35 · Histology
EasyWhich epithelium lines the trachea?
Q36 · Histology
EasyTransitional epithelium is characteristically found in which organ?
Q37 · Histology
EasyPulmonary surfactant is produced by which cell?
Q38 · Histology
MediumPurkinje fibres of the cardiac conducting system differ from ordinary cardiac muscle in which way?
Q39 · Histology
MediumThe blood-testis barrier is formed by tight junctions between which cells?
Q40 · Head and Neck
HardWhich structure is the most superficial of those traversing the parotid gland?
Q41 · Head and Neck
HardDuring thyroidectomy, which artery must be ligated with particular care because of its close relationship to the recurrent laryngeal nerve?
Q42 · Head and Neck
EasyWhich muscle forms the anterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?
Q43 · Head and Neck
EasyWhich of the following is NOT a content of the carotid sheath?
Q44 · Head and Neck
HardWhat is the relationship of the lingual nerve to the submandibular duct?
Q45 · Neuroanatomy
MediumThe posterior limb of the internal capsule receives its blood supply mainly from which vessels?
Q46 · Neuroanatomy
MediumThe lateral corticospinal tract decussates at which level?
Q47 · Neuroanatomy
HardFibres carrying fine touch and proprioception from the lower limb ascend in which tract and synapse where?
Q48 · Neuroanatomy
HardA patient presents with a dilated pupil, ptosis and an eye deviated down and out. An aneurysm at which site is the classic cause?
Q49 · Upper Limb Nerves
HardIn carpal tunnel syndrome, sensation over the thenar eminence is typically preserved. What explains this?
Q50 · Upper Limb
MediumA fall on an outstretched hand produces tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox. Which bone is fractured, and why is the proximal fragment at risk?
Q51 · Membrane Transport
NEET PGEasyThe sodium-potassium ATPase pump moves ions in which direction per cycle?
Q52 · Body Fluid Compartments
NEET PGMediumIn a 70 kg adult, total body water is about 42 litres. Approximately how much is intracellular?
Q53 · Resting Membrane Potential
MediumThe resting membrane potential of a neuron is closest to the equilibrium potential of which ion?
Q54 · Oncotic Pressure
EasyWhich plasma protein contributes most to plasma oncotic (colloid osmotic) pressure?
Q55 · Transport Mechanisms
HardGlucose absorption in the intestinal epithelium against its gradient is driven by?
Q56 · Action Potential
NEET PGEasyThe rapid depolarisation (upstroke) of a nerve action potential is caused by?
Q57 · Neuromuscular Junction
NEET PGEasyThe neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction is?
Q58 · Muscle Contraction
NEET PGMediumDuring skeletal muscle contraction, calcium binds to which protein to initiate cross-bridge cycling?
Q59 · Sarcomere
MediumDuring muscle contraction, which band of the sarcomere shortens?
Q60 · Nerve Fibre Types
HardWhich nerve fibre type has the fastest conduction velocity?
Q61 · Refractory Period
MediumDuring the absolute refractory period of an action potential, a second stimulus cannot generate a new impulse because?
Q62 · Cardiac Cycle
NEET PGMediumThe 'a' wave of the jugular venous pulse corresponds to?
Q63 · Cardiac Output
NEET PGEasyCardiac output is calculated as?
Q64 · Frank-Starling Law
NEET PGMediumThe Frank-Starling law of the heart states that within limits, an increase in which parameter increases stroke volume?
Q65 · ECG Waveforms
NEET PGMediumThe QRS complex on an ECG represents?
Q66 · Baroreceptor Reflex
HardA sudden rise in arterial blood pressure activates baroreceptors, producing which reflex response?
Q67 · Cardiac Pacemaker
EasyThe normal pacemaker of the heart, with the fastest intrinsic rate, is the?
Q68 · Heart Sounds
MediumThe first heart sound (S1) is produced by?
Q69 · Oxygen Dissociation Curve
NEET PGMediumWhich change shifts the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right, promoting oxygen release?
Q70 · Lung Volumes
NEET PGEasyWhich lung volume cannot be measured directly by simple spirometry?
Q71 · Obstructive and Restrictive Patterns
NEET PGMediumA reduced FEV1/FVC ratio is characteristic of which pattern of lung disease?
Q72 · Pulmonary Surfactant
EasyPulmonary surfactant, secreted by type II pneumocytes, functions to?
Q73 · Control of Respiration
HardThe most powerful normal stimulus driving respiration in a healthy person is?
Q74 · Carbon Dioxide Transport
MediumMost carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in which form?
Q75 · Types of Hypoxia
HardCarbon monoxide poisoning causes which type of hypoxia?
Q76 · Measuring GFR
NEET PGMediumThe ideal substance to measure glomerular filtration rate, being freely filtered and neither reabsorbed nor secreted, is?
Q77 · Renal Autoregulation
HardConstriction of the efferent arteriole alone will have what effect on GFR?
Q78 · Tubular Reabsorption
NEET PGEasyMost of the filtered glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?
Q79 · Antidiuretic Hormone
NEET PGMediumAntidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases water reabsorption by inserting which channels into the collecting duct?
Q80 · Acid-Base Balance
HardArterial blood gas shows pH 7.30, HCO3- 15 mmol/L, PaCO2 30 mmHg. This indicates?
Q81 · Counter-current Mechanism
MediumThe counter-current multiplier that concentrates urine operates primarily in the?
Q82 · Gastric Acid Secretion
NEET PGEasyGastric acid (HCl) is secreted by which cells of the stomach?
Q83 · Gastrointestinal Hormones
NEET PGMediumWhich hormone stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion in response to acidic chyme entering the duodenum?
Q84 · Intrinsic Factor
EasyIntrinsic factor, required for vitamin B12 absorption in the terminal ileum, is secreted by?
Q85 · Bile Salts
MediumThe primary function of bile salts in digestion is?
Q86 · Insulin Action
NEET PGEasyInsulin lowers blood glucose primarily by promoting glucose uptake via which transporter in muscle and fat?
Q87 · Thyroid Hormone
NEET PGMediumWhich is the more metabolically active thyroid hormone at the tissue level?
Q88 · Calcium Regulation
NEET PGMediumParathyroid hormone (PTH) raises serum calcium by all of the following EXCEPT?
Q89 · Second Messengers
HardWhich hormone acts primarily through the cyclic AMP (cAMP) second messenger system?
Q90 · Adrenal Hormones
EasyAldosterone, secreted by the adrenal cortex, primarily regulates?
Q91 · Synaptic Transmission
NEET PGMediumNeurotransmitter release at a chemical synapse is triggered by influx of which ion into the presynaptic terminal?
Q92 · Ascending Tracts
NEET PGMediumPain and temperature sensations are carried in the spinal cord by which tract?
Q93 · Motor Pathways
HardThe lateral corticospinal tract decussates (crosses) at which location?
Q94 · Reflexes
EasyThe knee-jerk (patellar) reflex is an example of a?
Q95 · Cerebellar Function
MediumDamage to the cerebellum most characteristically causes?
Q96 · Electroencephalography
MediumWhich EEG waveform predominates in an awake, relaxed adult with eyes closed?
Q97 · Autonomic Nervous System
EasyThe neurotransmitter released by postganglionic sympathetic neurons at most target organs is?
Q98 · Pain Pathways
HardFast, sharp, well-localised pain is carried by which type of nerve fibre?
Q99 · Vision
MediumWhich photoreceptors are responsible for colour vision and function best in bright light?
Q100 · Hypothalamus
EasyWhich brain structure is the main centre for temperature regulation, hunger, thirst and circadian rhythm?
Q101 · Michaelis Constant
NEET PGMediumA low Km value for an enzyme indicates?
Q102 · Competitive Inhibition
NEET PGMediumIn competitive enzyme inhibition, the effect on kinetic parameters is?
Q103 · Cardiac Markers
NEET PGEasyWhich enzyme is a specific and sensitive marker of myocardial injury?
Q104 · Coenzymes
MediumWhich vitamin is the coenzyme, as thiamine pyrophosphate, for the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
Q105 · Rate-limiting Enzymes
HardThe rate-limiting (committed) enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is?
Q106 · Enzyme Classification
EasyEnzymes that catalyse the transfer of a functional group between molecules are classified as?
Q107 · Allosteric Regulation
HardPhosphofructokinase-1, the key regulatory enzyme of glycolysis, is allosterically inhibited by?
Q108 · Glycolysis
NEET PGEasyGlycolysis occurs in which part of the cell?
Q109 · Citric Acid Cycle
NEET PGMediumThe citric acid (Krebs) cycle occurs in which cellular location?
Q110 · Gluconeogenesis
MediumWhich organ is the primary site of gluconeogenesis during fasting?
Q111 · Pentose Phosphate Pathway
HardThe main products of the hexose monophosphate (pentose phosphate) pathway are NADPH and?
Q112 · Cori Cycle
MediumIn the Cori cycle, lactate produced by exercising muscle is converted back to glucose in the?
Q113 · Electron Transport Chain
HardThe final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is?
Q114 · Glucose Transporters
EasyWhich glucose transporter is insulin-dependent and found in muscle and adipose tissue?
Q115 · Beta-oxidation
NEET PGMediumThe carrier molecule that transports long-chain fatty acids into the mitochondria for beta-oxidation is?
Q116 · Lipoproteins
NEET PGEasyWhich lipoprotein is known as 'good cholesterol' because it transports cholesterol from tissues back to the liver?
Q117 · Apolipoproteins
HardWhich apolipoprotein activates lipoprotein lipase to hydrolyse triglycerides in chylomicrons and VLDL?
Q118 · Ketone Bodies
MediumKetone bodies are synthesised primarily in the liver from?
Q119 · Essential Fatty Acids
EasyWhich is an essential fatty acid that must be obtained from the diet?
Q120 · Familial Hypercholesterolaemia
HardFamilial hypercholesterolaemia is most commonly caused by a defect in?
Q121 · Urea Cycle
NEET PGMediumThe urea cycle, which disposes of ammonia, occurs primarily in the?
Q122 · Transamination
MediumTransamination reactions require which vitamin-derived coenzyme?
Q123 · Essential Amino Acids
EasyWhich of the following is an essential amino acid?
Q124 · Collagen Synthesis
HardHydroxylation of proline and lysine during collagen synthesis requires which vitamin as a cofactor?
Q125 · Protein Structure
MediumThe alpha-helix and beta-pleated sheet are examples of which level of protein structure?
Q126 · Nitrogen Balance
EasyA negative nitrogen balance indicates?
Q127 · Thiamine Deficiency
NEET PGEasyA patient with alcohol dependence presents with confusion, ophthalmoplegia and ataxia. The deficient vitamin is?
Q128 · Vitamin B12 Deficiency
NEET PGMediumMacrocytic anaemia with hypersegmented neutrophils and neurological signs indicates deficiency of?
Q129 · Vitamin C Deficiency
NEET PGEasyBleeding gums, perifollicular haemorrhages and poor wound healing indicate deficiency of?
Q130 · Vitamin D Activation
NEET PGMediumThe active form of vitamin D, calcitriol, is produced by hydroxylation in the?
Q131 · Vitamin A Deficiency
EasyNight blindness is an early feature of deficiency of which vitamin?
Q132 · Vitamin K
MediumVitamin K is required for the gamma-carboxylation of which clotting factors?
Q133 · Niacin Deficiency
HardThe triad of dermatitis, diarrhoea and dementia (pellagra) results from deficiency of?
Q134 · Blotting Techniques
NEET PGMediumWestern blotting is used to detect?
Q135 · Polymerase Chain Reaction
NEET PGEasyWhich enzyme is essential for the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
Q136 · DNA Replication
HardWhich enzyme removes RNA primers and fills the gaps during prokaryotic DNA replication?
Q137 · Genetic Code
MediumThe genetic code is described as 'degenerate' because?
Q138 · Transcription
EasyThe process of synthesising messenger RNA from a DNA template is called?
Q139 · Mutations
HardA point mutation that converts an amino-acid codon into a stop codon is called a?
Q140 · Von Gierke Disease
NEET PGMediumAn infant with fasting hypoglycaemia, hepatomegaly and lactic acidosis has glycogen storage disease type I due to deficiency of?
Q141 · McArdle Disease
HardA young adult develops exercise-induced muscle cramps and myoglobinuria with a 'second wind' phenomenon. The deficient enzyme is?
Q142 · Phenylketonuria
NEET PGMediumA neonate with a musty body odour, fair skin and developmental delay if untreated has a deficiency of?
Q143 · Alkaptonuria
HardUrine that turns black on standing, along with ochronosis, results from deficiency of?
Q144 · Galactosaemia
MediumAn infant develops vomiting, jaundice, hepatomegaly and cataracts after starting milk feeds. The likely deficiency is?
Q145 · Tay-Sachs Disease
HardAn infant with progressive neurodegeneration, a cherry-red macular spot and no hepatosplenomegaly has a deficiency of?
Q146 · Gaucher Disease
HardThe most common lysosomal storage disorder, featuring hepatosplenomegaly and 'crumpled tissue paper' macrophages, results from deficiency of?
Q147 · Maple Syrup Urine Disease
MediumAn infant with a sweet, maple-syrup odour to the urine has a defect in the metabolism of?
Q148 · Wilson Disease
MediumA young adult with tremor, liver disease and a brown ring at the corneal margin has a defect in metabolism of?
Q149 · G6PD Deficiency
MediumEpisodic haemolysis after eating fava beans or taking certain drugs, with bite cells and Heinz bodies, indicates deficiency of?
Q150 · Homocystinuria
HardA tall patient with downward lens dislocation, a marfanoid habitus and thrombotic episodes likely has?
Q151 · Reversible and Irreversible Injury
NEET PGMediumWhich feature indicates that cell injury has become irreversible?
Q152 · Apoptosis and Necrosis
NEET PGEasyApoptosis differs from necrosis in that apoptosis is?
Q153 · Types of Necrosis
NEET PGMediumWhich type of necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis?
Q154 · Free Radical Injury
HardWhich enzyme protects cells by converting superoxide radicals to hydrogen peroxide?
Q155 · Dystrophic Calcification
MediumCalcium deposition in damaged or necrotic tissue with normal serum calcium levels is called?
Q156 · Fatty Change
EasyFatty change (steatosis) is most commonly seen in which organ due to alcohol?
Q157 · Acute Inflammation
NEET PGEasyThe predominant cell in the first 24 hours of acute inflammation is the?
Q158 · Granulomatous Inflammation
NEET PGMediumThe characteristic cell of a granuloma, derived from activated macrophages, is the?
Q159 · Chemical Mediators
MediumWhich mediator is chiefly responsible for the vasodilation and increased vascular permeability of early acute inflammation?
Q160 · Wound Healing
HardWhich vitamin deficiency most impairs collagen synthesis and wound healing due to defective hydroxylation?
Q161 · Cell Regeneration
MediumWhich of the following is a labile cell type that continuously divides and regenerates readily?
Q162 · Exudate and Transudate
EasyAn inflammatory exudate differs from a transudate in that an exudate has?
Q163 · Tumour Markers
NEET PGEasyAlpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a tumour marker classically elevated in?
Q164 · Tumour Markers
NEET PGMediumCA 19-9 is the tumour marker most associated with which malignancy?
Q165 · Psammoma Bodies
NEET PGMediumLaminated calcified psammoma bodies are characteristically seen in all of the following EXCEPT?
Q166 · Signet-ring Cells
NEET PGHardSignet-ring cells, in which mucin displaces the nucleus to the periphery, are most characteristic of?
Q167 · Benign and Malignant Tumours
EasyWhich feature most reliably indicates malignancy rather than a benign tumour?
Q168 · Tumour Suppressor Genes
HardThe p53 gene is classified as a tumour suppressor gene because it?
Q169 · Routes of Metastasis
MediumCarcinomas most commonly spread initially by which route?
Q170 · Iron Deficiency Anaemia
NEET PGEasyA microcytic hypochromic anaemia with low serum ferritin is most consistent with?
Q171 · Megaloblastic Anaemia
NEET PGEasyHypersegmented neutrophils and macrocytosis on a blood smear point to?
Q172 · Hodgkin Lymphoma
NEET PGEasyThe binucleate 'owl-eye' cell diagnostic of classical Hodgkin lymphoma is the?
Q173 · Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
NEET PGMediumThe Philadelphia chromosome, t(9;22) producing the BCR-ABL fusion, defines which disorder?
Q174 · Auer Rods
NEET PGMediumAuer rods in the cytoplasm of blasts indicate which leukaemia?
Q175 · Burkitt Lymphoma
HardThe 'starry-sky' appearance and t(8;14) translocation activating c-MYC are characteristic of?
Q176 · Hereditary Spherocytosis
MediumA patient with haemolytic anaemia, spherocytes on smear and a positive osmotic fragility test most likely has?
Q177 · Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
HardIn disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which laboratory finding is expected?
Q178 · Rheumatic Carditis
NEET PGMediumAschoff bodies with Anitschkow ('caterpillar') cells are pathognomonic of?
Q179 · Atherosclerosis
NEET PGEasyThe earliest grossly visible lesion of atherosclerosis is the?
Q180 · Nephrotic Syndrome
NEET PGMediumThe commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in children is?
Q181 · Alcoholic Liver Disease
MediumMallory-Denk bodies (Mallory hyaline) in hepatocytes are most characteristic of?
Q182 · Emphysema
HardPanacinar emphysema, particularly at the lung bases in a young non-smoker, suggests deficiency of?
Q183 · Peptic Ulcer Disease
EasyWhich organism is the major cause of chronic gastritis and peptic ulcer disease?
Q184 · Thyroid Carcinoma
Medium'Orphan Annie eye' nuclei with nuclear grooves are characteristic of?
Q185 · Hypersensitivity Reactions
NEET PGMediumAnaphylaxis is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Q186 · Amyloidosis
NEET PGMediumAmyloid deposits show which characteristic staining property?
Q187 · Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
HardWhich autoantibody is most specific for systemic lupus erythematosus?
Q188 · Delayed Hypersensitivity
MediumThe tuberculin (Mantoux) skin test is an example of which hypersensitivity type?
Q189 · Immunodeficiency
EasyIn HIV infection, which cell is primarily depleted, leading to immunodeficiency?
Q190 · Immunohistochemistry
NEET PGHardWhich immunohistochemical marker is used to identify cells of melanocytic origin (melanoma)?
Q191 · CSF Analysis
NEET PGMediumIn bacterial meningitis, the cerebrospinal fluid typically shows?
Q192 · Special Stains
MediumWhich stain is used to demonstrate iron (haemosiderin) in tissues?
Q193 · Transfusion Reactions
MediumAn acute haemolytic transfusion reaction from ABO incompatibility is which type of hypersensitivity?
Q194 · Sickle Cell Disease
EasySickle cell anaemia results from a point mutation causing which amino acid substitution in beta-globin?
Q195 · Coagulation Tests
MediumA prolonged prothrombin time (PT) with a normal aPTT indicates a defect in which pathway?
Q196 · Malaria
EasyWhich malaria species is associated with banana-shaped (crescentic) gametocytes and severe disease?
Q197 · Tumour Markers
EasyProstate-specific antigen (PSA) is used in the screening and monitoring of?
Q198 · Thrombosis
MediumVirchow's triad of factors predisposing to thrombosis includes endothelial injury, abnormal blood flow, and?
Q199 · Anaemia of Chronic Disease
HardAnaemia of chronic disease is characterised by which iron-study pattern?
Q200 · Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
MediumThe commonest leukaemia in children, associated with a good prognosis and TdT positivity, is?
Q201 · Bioavailability
NEET PGEasyBy definition, which route of drug administration provides 100% bioavailability?
Q202 · First-pass Metabolism
NEET PGMediumA drug undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism. Which route would best avoid this effect?
Q203 · Enzyme Kinetics
HardWhich drug follows zero-order (saturation) kinetics at therapeutic doses, meaning a constant amount is eliminated per unit time regardless of concentration?
Q204 · Competitive Inhibition
MediumA competitive enzyme inhibitor produces which change in kinetic parameters?
Q205 · Receptor Types
NEET PGMediumThe insulin receptor transmits its signal through which mechanism?
Q206 · Therapeutic Index
EasyA narrow therapeutic index means a drug requires careful monitoring. Which drug is a classic example?
Q207 · Drug Half-life
HardApproximately how many half-lives are required for a drug to reach steady-state plasma concentration during constant dosing?
Q208 · Muscarinic Antagonists
NEET PGEasyAtropine produces its effects by blocking which receptor?
Q209 · Beta Blocker Selectivity
NEET PGMediumWhich beta blocker is cardioselective (beta-1 selective) and therefore safer in a patient with asthma?
Q210 · Alpha Blockers
MediumA drug used in benign prostatic hyperplasia relaxes bladder neck smooth muscle by blocking alpha-1 receptors. Which is it?
Q211 · Cholinesterase Inhibitors
EasyWhich drug is used to treat myasthenia gravis by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase?
Q212 · Adrenergic Agonists
HardIn anaphylaxis, adrenaline is life-saving primarily because of which combined action?
Q213 · Depolarising Blockers
NEET PGMediumSuccinylcholine is a depolarising neuromuscular blocker. A serious adverse effect to watch for is?
Q214 · ACE Inhibitors
NEET PGEasyA patient on enalapril develops a persistent dry cough. This is due to accumulation of?
Q215 · Warfarin Mechanism
NEET PGEasyWarfarin produces anticoagulation by which mechanism?
Q216 · Heparin Monitoring
NEET PGMediumUnfractionated heparin therapy is monitored using which laboratory test?
Q217 · Digoxin Interactions
NEET PGMediumWhich co-administered drug raises serum digoxin levels and can precipitate toxicity?
Q218 · Antihypertensives in Pregnancy
NEET PGEasyWhich antihypertensive is preferred and considered safe in pregnancy?
Q219 · Antiarrhythmic Toxicity
HardLong-term amiodarone therapy requires monitoring for which characteristic toxicity?
Q220 · Statin Adverse Effects
MediumA patient on atorvastatin develops muscle pain and raised creatine kinase. This adverse effect is?
Q221 · Status Epilepticus
NEET PGEasyThe first-line drug for terminating status epilepticus is?
Q222 · Absence Seizures
NEET PGMediumThe drug of choice for uncomplicated absence (petit mal) seizures is?
Q223 · Opioid Overdose
NEET PGEasyA patient presents with pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression and coma after drug use. The antidote is?
Q224 · Lithium Toxicity
HardA patient on lithium develops tremor, ataxia and confusion. Which co-prescribed drug most likely precipitated lithium toxicity?
Q225 · Antipsychotic Adverse Effects
MediumWhich antipsychotic requires regular white blood cell monitoring because of the risk of agranulocytosis?
Q226 · Inhalational Anaesthetics
MediumA low MAC (minimum alveolar concentration) value of an inhalational anaesthetic indicates?
Q227 · Isoniazid Neuropathy
NEET PGEasyPeripheral neuropathy from isoniazid is prevented by co-administering which vitamin?
Q228 · Aminoglycoside Toxicity
NEET PGEasyThe two dose-limiting toxicities of gentamicin are?
Q229 · Ethambutol Toxicity
NEET PGMediumA patient on antitubercular therapy reports blurred vision and difficulty distinguishing red from green. The responsible drug is?
Q230 · Rifampicin
NEET PGEasyA patient starting antitubercular therapy is warned that one drug turns body secretions orange-red. Which drug is it?
Q231 · MRSA Treatment
NEET PGMediumThe drug of choice for a serious methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection is?
Q232 · Fluoroquinolone Adverse Effects
MediumFluoroquinolones such as ciprofloxacin are generally avoided in children and pregnancy because of the risk of?
Q233 · Antifungal Mechanisms
HardAmphotericin B exerts its antifungal action by?
Q234 · Beta-lactam Mechanism
EasyPenicillins kill bacteria by?
Q235 · Cyclophosphamide Toxicity
NEET PGMediumHaemorrhagic cystitis caused by cyclophosphamide is prevented by co-administering?
Q236 · Doxorubicin Toxicity
NEET PGMediumThe characteristic dose-limiting toxicity of doxorubicin is?
Q237 · Vincristine Toxicity
HardThe dose-limiting toxicity of vincristine is?
Q238 · Methotrexate Rescue
MediumAfter high-dose methotrexate, which agent is given to rescue normal cells from toxicity?
Q239 · Insulin Preparations
NEET PGMediumWhich insulin has the most rapid onset and shortest duration, ideal for mealtime bolus dosing?
Q240 · Metformin
NEET PGEasyMetformin, the first-line oral drug for type 2 diabetes, carries a rare but serious risk of?
Q241 · Corticosteroid Effects
MediumLong-term systemic corticosteroid therapy characteristically causes all of the following EXCEPT?
Q242 · Antithyroid Drugs
HardWhich antithyroid drug is preferred in the first trimester of pregnancy?
Q243 · Aspirin Mechanism
NEET PGEasyLow-dose aspirin has an antiplatelet effect because it irreversibly inhibits?
Q244 · Acute Gout
NEET PGMediumWhich drug is used in an acute gout attack and acts by inhibiting microtubule polymerisation in neutrophils?
Q245 · Antihistamines
EasyCompared with cetirizine, first-generation antihistamines such as diphenhydramine more commonly cause?
Q246 · NSAIDs and Peptic Ulcer
HardNSAIDs increase peptic ulcer risk primarily by inhibiting which protective mediator in the gastric mucosa?
Q247 · Organophosphate Poisoning
NEET PGEasyA farmer presents with pinpoint pupils, salivation, watery lung secretions and bradycardia after pesticide exposure. The treatment is?
Q248 · Paracetamol Antidote
NEET PGEasyThe specific antidote for paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose is?
Q249 · Methanol Poisoning
MediumA patient with methanol poisoning and a high anion-gap metabolic acidosis with visual disturbance is best treated with?
Q250 · Beta Blocker Overdose
HardA patient with beta blocker overdose has bradycardia and hypotension unresponsive to atropine. The specific antidote is?
Q251 · Gram Stain
NEET PGEasyIn a Gram stain, gram-positive organisms appear which colour due to their thick peptidoglycan retaining crystal violet?
Q252 · Sterilisation
NEET PGMediumThe autoclave sterilises instruments using saturated steam under pressure typically at?
Q253 · Acid-fast Stain
NEET PGEasyThe Ziehl-Neelsen (acid-fast) stain is used primarily to identify?
Q254 · Bacterial Growth Curve
HardDuring which phase of the bacterial growth curve are cells most susceptible to antibiotics acting on cell-wall synthesis?
Q255 · Culture Media
NEET PGMediumLowenstein-Jensen medium is used to culture?
Q256 · Disinfection
EasyWhich method is best suited to sterilise heat-sensitive endoscopes and plastics?
Q257 · Diphtheria Toxin
NEET PGMediumDiphtheria and Pseudomonas exotoxin A both cause cell death by?
Q258 · Tetanus
NEET PGMediumTetanospasmin causes muscle rigidity and spasms by?
Q259 · Cholera
NEET PGEasyCholera toxin produces profuse watery ('rice-water') diarrhoea by?
Q260 · Staphylococcus aureus
NEET PGEasyWhich test distinguishes Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci?
Q261 · Streptococcus Classification
MediumStreptococcus pyogenes (Group A) shows which type of haemolysis on blood agar?
Q262 · Meningitis by Age
NEET PGMediumThe most common cause of bacterial meningitis in neonates is?
Q263 · Mycobacterial Cell Wall
NEET PGEasyWhich cell-wall component makes Mycobacterium tuberculosis acid-fast?
Q264 · Helicobacter pylori
MediumWhich enzyme enables Helicobacter pylori to survive in the acidic stomach and is the basis of its urea breath test?
Q265 · Pseudomonas aeruginosa
MediumA burns patient develops a wound infection with blue-green pus and a fruity odour. The likely organism is?
Q266 · Clostridioides difficile
HardAntibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis is most often caused by?
Q267 · Weil-Felix Reaction
HardThe Weil-Felix test, using Proteus antigens, is used in the serological diagnosis of?
Q268 · Typhoid Diagnosis
NEET PGMediumIn the first week of typhoid fever, the most sensitive diagnostic test is?
Q269 · Syphilis
MediumWhich organism causes syphilis and is best seen by dark-ground microscopy?
Q270 · Endotoxin
EasyBacterial endotoxin, responsible for septic shock in gram-negative infections, is composed of?
Q271 · Hepatitis B Window Period
NEET PGHardDuring the hepatitis B 'window period', the only positive serological marker is usually?
Q272 · Hepatitis B Infectivity
NEET PGMediumWhich hepatitis B marker indicates high infectivity and active viral replication?
Q273 · HIV Monitoring
NEET PGEasyWhich laboratory marker best reflects the immune status of an HIV-infected patient?
Q274 · HIV Diagnosis
MediumWhich test is used as the confirmatory test for HIV after a positive screening ELISA?
Q275 · Rabies
NEET PGMediumThe pathognomonic intracytoplasmic inclusion body seen in rabies is the?
Q276 · Influenza Antigenic Variation
HardMajor shifts in influenza surface antigens that can cause pandemics are termed?
Q277 · Oncogenic Viruses
NEET PGMediumWhich virus is most strongly associated with cervical carcinoma?
Q278 · Epstein-Barr Virus
MediumEpstein-Barr virus is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?
Q279 · Hepatitis Transmission
EasyWhich hepatitis viruses are transmitted mainly by the faecal-oral route?
Q280 · Dengue Vector
MediumDengue virus is transmitted by which vector?
Q281 · Polio Vaccine
EasyThe oral polio vaccine (OPV) is an example of which vaccine type?
Q282 · Reverse Transcriptase
HardWhich enzyme, unique to retroviruses such as HIV, converts viral RNA into DNA?
Q283 · Malaria Species
NEET PGMediumWhich malaria species causes the most severe disease, including cerebral malaria?
Q284 · Malaria Relapse
HardRelapses of Plasmodium vivax malaria are due to dormant liver forms called?
Q285 · Amoebiasis
NEET PGMediumEntamoeba histolytica classically causes a liver abscess with aspirate resembling?
Q286 · Lymphatic Filariasis
MediumLymphatic filariasis, causing elephantiasis, is most commonly due to?
Q287 · Hydatid Disease
HardHydatid cysts of the liver are caused by which parasite, with the dog as definitive host?
Q288 · Visceral Leishmaniasis
MediumVisceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) is transmitted by the bite of a?
Q289 · Cryptococcus
NEET PGMediumAn HIV patient with headache has CSF showing capsulated budding yeast on India ink stain. The organism is?
Q290 · Dimorphic Fungi
HardDimorphic fungi such as Histoplasma exist as?
Q291 · Candidiasis
EasyOral thrush, with white plaques on the tongue, in an immunocompromised patient is caused by?
Q292 · Mucosal Antibody
NEET PGEasyWhich immunoglobulin is the main antibody in mucosal secretions such as saliva, tears and breast milk?
Q293 · Placental Transfer
NEET PGMediumWhich immunoglobulin crosses the placenta to provide passive immunity to the newborn?
Q294 · Primary Immune Response
MediumWhich immunoglobulin is produced first in a primary immune response and indicates acute infection?
Q295 · Type I Hypersensitivity
NEET PGMediumAnaphylaxis is mediated by which immunoglobulin bound to mast cells?
Q296 · MHC Restriction
HardCytotoxic (CD8) T cells recognise antigen presented on which molecule?
Q297 · Vaccine Types
NEET PGEasyWhich of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
Q298 · Passive Immunity
MediumAdministration of preformed antibodies, such as anti-tetanus immunoglobulin, provides?
Q299 · Complement Deficiency
HardDeficiency of terminal complement components (C5 to C9) predisposes particularly to infection with?
Q300 · ELISA
EasyThe ELISA test is most commonly used to?
Q301 · Rigor Mortis
NEET PGEasyRigor mortis typically develops and passes off following which approximate pattern in a temperate climate?
Q302 · Cadaveric Spasm
NEET PGMediumA drowned body is found tightly gripping weeds that cannot be prised loose. This is?
Q303 · Postmortem Lividity
NEET PGEasyCherry-red postmortem lividity is characteristic of death due to?
Q304 · Algor Mortis
MediumAlgor mortis refers to which postmortem change?
Q305 · Putrefaction
NEET PGMediumThe earliest external sign of putrefaction is usually a greenish discolouration over the?
Q306 · Casper's Dictum
HardAccording to Casper's dictum, the relative rate of putrefaction in air, water and earth is?
Q307 · Adipocere
MediumAdipocere formation after death requires which environmental condition?
Q308 · Mummification
MediumMummification of a body occurs under which conditions?
Q309 · Stomach Contents
HardStomach contents are used to estimate time since the last meal because an average meal usually leaves the stomach in approximately?
Q310 · Brain-stem Death
EasyWhich is essential for certifying brain-stem death?
Q311 · Laceration
NEET PGEasyWhich feature distinguishes a laceration from an incised wound?
Q312 · Incised and Stab Wounds
EasyIn an incised wound, the relationship between dimensions is that the?
Q313 · Grievous Hurt
NEET PGHardUnder the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, one category of grievous hurt is when the injured person is unable to follow ordinary pursuits for a period of at least?
Q314 · Age of a Contusion
NEET PGMediumA bruise that has turned greenish then yellow is approximately how old?
Q315 · Firearm Entry Wound
NEET PGMediumWhich feature is characteristic of a firearm entry wound?
Q316 · Skull Fracture Bevelling
HardIn a gunshot wound of the skull, internal bevelling, meaning the defect is wider on the inner table, indicates?
Q317 · Defence Wounds
MediumCuts on the palms and forearms of a victim of a sharp-weapon assault are termed?
Q318 · Hesitation Cuts
MediumMultiple superficial parallel cuts near a deeper wound on the wrist suggest?
Q319 · Rule of Nines
EasyBy the rule of nines in an adult, the entire head and neck represents what percentage of total body surface area?
Q320 · Hanging
NEET PGMediumThe ligature mark of a typical hanging is characteristically?
Q321 · Ligature Strangulation
MediumWhich finding favours ligature strangulation over hanging?
Q322 · Throttling
MediumManual strangulation (throttling) typically produces which neck findings?
Q323 · Drowning
HardWhich finding supports a diagnosis of antemortem drowning?
Q324 · Tardieu Spots
MediumTardieu spots, the petechial haemorrhages seen in asphyxial deaths, are due to?
Q325 · Cafe Coronary
HardSudden death while eating, due to a large food bolus obstructing the larynx, is called?
Q326 · Arsenic Poisoning
NEET PGMediumChronic arsenic poisoning characteristically produces which nail finding?
Q327 · Lead Poisoning
NEET PGMediumA blue-black line along the gum margin (Burton's line) with basophilic stippling of red cells indicates?
Q328 · Organophosphate Poisoning
NEET PGEasyOrganophosphate insecticide poisoning is confirmed biochemically by a fall in?
Q329 · Carbon Monoxide
EasyCarbon monoxide poisoning is dangerous because CO binds haemoglobin with an affinity roughly how many times that of oxygen?
Q330 · Dhatura Poisoning
MediumDhatura poisoning produces features resembling which drug class, making it a 'poison of highways'?
Q331 · Opioid Poisoning
EasyThe classic triad of opioid poisoning is respiratory depression, coma and?
Q332 · Snake Bite
HardA bite from a cobra (elapid) primarily causes which effect?
Q333 · Postmortem Alcohol
MediumWhich specimen is preferred for reliable postmortem estimation of blood alcohol concentration, being resistant to putrefactive alcohol production?
Q334 · Corrosive Poisoning
MediumWhich is the correct first-aid principle for a strong acid or alkali (corrosive) ingestion?
Q335 · Viscera Preservation
HardThe routine chemical preservative used for viscera sent for toxicological analysis in suspected poisoning is?
Q336 · Age of Consent
NEET PGMediumFor a general physical examination, valid independent consent can be given by a person who has attained the age of?
Q337 · Dying Declaration
NEET PGMediumA dying declaration is best recorded by?
Q338 · Medical Negligence
HardThe standard used to judge medical negligence, based on the ordinary skill of a competent practitioner, is known as the?
Q339 · Insanity Defence
HardThe legal test of criminal responsibility in the insane, concerning knowledge of the nature and wrongfulness of the act, is the?
Q340 · Privileged Communication
MediumA doctor informing public health authorities that a patient has a notifiable infectious disease is an example of?
Q341 · Fingerprints
NEET PGEasyWhich characteristic makes fingerprints a reliable method of identification?
Q342 · DNA Profiling
NEET PGMediumDNA profiling for identification is most commonly based on analysing?
Q343 · Age from Teeth
MediumIn a child, the total number of deciduous (milk) teeth when fully erupted is?
Q344 · Sex Determination
HardWhich pelvic feature indicates a female skeleton?
Q345 · Stature Estimation
MediumWhich bones are most commonly used to estimate stature from skeletal remains?
Q346 · Skeletal Age
HardRadiographs of which region are commonly used to estimate skeletal age in adolescents?
Q347 · Tattoos and Scars
EasyTattoos and scars are used in identification because they are?
Q348 · Gustafson's Method
HardGustafson's method estimates age in adults by assessing age-related changes in the?
Q349 · Superimposition
MediumPhotographic superimposition is a technique used to?
Q350 · Precipitin Test
MediumThe precipitin test is used to determine whether a bloodstain is?
Q351 · Incidence and Prevalence
NEET PGEasyFor a chronic disease of long duration, the prevalence is generally?
Q352 · Study Designs
NEET PGMediumWhich study design is best suited to investigate a rare disease?
Q353 · Measures of Association
NEET PGMediumWhich measure of association is directly obtained from a cohort study?
Q354 · Screening Bias
HardApparent improvement in survival simply because a screening test detects disease earlier, without changing the actual outcome, is called?
Q355 · Epidemic Types
MediumAn epidemic curve with a single sharp peak, where all cases appear within one incubation period, indicates a?
Q356 · Herd Immunity
NEET PGEasyHerd immunity refers to?
Q357 · Levels of Prevention
MediumImmunising a healthy child against measles is an example of which level of prevention?
Q358 · Reproduction Number
HardThe basic reproduction number (R0) of an infection represents the?
Q359 · Disease Surveillance
EasyContinuous, systematic collection and analysis of health data to guide public health action is called?
Q360 · Sensitivity
NEET PGMediumSensitivity of a diagnostic test is defined as?
Q361 · Specificity
NEET PGMediumA test with high specificity is most useful for?
Q362 · Predictive Value
NEET PGHardAs the prevalence of a disease in a population falls, the positive predictive value of a test?
Q363 · Types of Data
EasyBlood group (A, B, AB, O) is an example of which type of data?
Q364 · Central Tendency
MediumFor markedly skewed data, which measure of central tendency best represents the typical value?
Q365 · Normal Distribution
MediumIn a normal distribution, approximately what percentage of observations lie within two standard deviations of the mean?
Q366 · Hypothesis Testing
HardRejecting a null hypothesis that is actually true is known as?
Q367 · Statistical Tests
HardTo compare the mean values of a continuous variable between two independent groups, the appropriate test is?
Q368 · Vaccines at Birth
NEET PGEasyUnder India's National Immunization Schedule, which vaccines are given at birth?
Q369 · Cold Chain
NEET PGMediumIn the vaccine cold chain, which vaccine requires storage at the lowest (deep-freeze) temperature?
Q370 · Vaccine Types
NEET PGEasyWhich of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
Q371 · Vaccine Vial Monitor
MediumA vaccine vial monitor on a vaccine vial indicates?
Q372 · Passive Immunity
MediumGiving tetanus immunoglobulin to a person with a contaminated wound provides?
Q373 · Mission Indradhanush
HardMission Indradhanush was launched in India primarily to?
Q374 · Tuberculosis Programme
NEET PGMediumThe strategy of directly observed treatment, short-course (DOTS) is central to India's programme for controlling?
Q375 · Diarrhoea Management
NEET PGEasyIn managing childhood diarrhoea, oral rehydration solution combined with which supplement reduces duration and severity?
Q376 · Ayushman Bharat
MediumThe Ayushman Bharat programme in India includes health and wellness centres and a scheme providing?
Q377 · Leprosy Programme
MediumThe treatment backbone of the national leprosy programme is?
Q378 · ASHA Worker
NEET PGEasyUnder the National Health Mission, the ASHA is a?
Q379 · Non-communicable Diseases
HardIndia's programme addressing cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular diseases and stroke together is abbreviated as?
Q380 · Vector-borne Diseases
MediumMalaria, dengue, filariasis and kala-azar are addressed under which umbrella national programme in India?
Q381 · Kwashiorkor
NEET PGMediumA child with bilateral pedal oedema, a distended abdomen and depigmented hair, but retained subcutaneous fat, has?
Q382 · Marasmus
NEET PGEasyThe distinguishing feature of marasmus compared with kwashiorkor is?
Q383 · Vitamin A Deficiency
NEET PGEasyBitot spots on the conjunctiva are a sign of deficiency of?
Q384 · Iodine Deficiency
MediumThe most effective public health measure to prevent iodine deficiency disorders in a population is?
Q385 · Growth Monitoring
MediumThe single best indicator for monitoring the growth and nutritional status of an individual young child over time is?
Q386 · Breastfeeding
NEET PGEasyExclusive breastfeeding is recommended for infants up to what age?
Q387 · Anthropometry
HardMid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) is used mainly to assess?
Q388 · Infant Mortality Rate
NEET PGEasyThe infant mortality rate is defined as deaths under 1 year of age per?
Q389 · Maternal Mortality Ratio
NEET PGMediumThe maternal mortality ratio is conventionally expressed per?
Q390 · Under-five Mortality
MediumThe under-five mortality rate measures deaths?
Q391 · Demographic Transition
HardIn the demographic transition, the stage with a high birth rate but rapidly falling death rate leads to?
Q392 · Disability-adjusted Life Year
HardThe disability-adjusted life year (DALY) combines which two components?
Q393 · Water Disinfection
NEET PGEasyThe most widely used method for disinfecting public water supplies is?
Q394 · Residual Chlorine
MediumThe recommended minimum free residual chlorine in drinking water after a contact period of about 30 minutes is approximately?
Q395 · Fluoride
NEET PGMediumExcess fluoride in drinking water above the safe limit characteristically causes?
Q396 · Indicator Organism
NEET PGMediumWhich organism is the standard indicator of recent faecal contamination of drinking water?
Q397 · Air Pollution
HardWhich air pollutant particle size is most harmful because it penetrates deep into the alveoli?
Q398 · Biomedical Waste
MediumIn colour-coded biomedical waste segregation, sharps such as needles are typically discarded in which container?
Q399 · Housefly-borne Disease
EasyThe housefly is a mechanical vector chiefly implicated in the spread of?
Q400 · Pasteurisation
HardPasteurisation of milk at 63 degrees C for 30 minutes, the holder method, is designed primarily to destroy?
Q401 · Inferior Myocardial Infarction
NEET PGMediumST elevation in leads II, III and aVF localises a myocardial infarction to which wall, usually from occlusion of which artery?
Q402 · Hyperkalaemia on ECG
NEET PGEasyTall, tented T waves progressing to a widened QRS on ECG suggest?
Q403 · Infective Endocarditis
NEET PGMediumWhich criteria are used to diagnose infective endocarditis?
Q404 · Acute Rheumatic Fever
NEET PGMediumAcute rheumatic fever is diagnosed using which set of criteria?
Q405 · Atrial Fibrillation
EasyAn irregularly irregular pulse with no distinct P waves on ECG indicates?
Q406 · Heart Failure
MediumWhich biomarker is most useful in diagnosing and assessing heart failure?
Q407 · Cardiac Tamponade
HardBeck's triad of cardiac tamponade consists of hypotension, muffled heart sounds and?
Q408 · Hypertension
EasyWhich is considered first-line drug therapy for uncomplicated hypertension in a young patient?
Q409 · Diabetic Ketoacidosis
NEET PGEasyA type 1 diabetic presents with hyperglycaemia, ketonaemia and a high anion-gap metabolic acidosis. The diagnosis is?
Q410 · Diagnosing Diabetes
NEET PGMediumWhich HbA1c value is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus?
Q411 · Hypothyroidism
NEET PGEasyThe most common cause of primary hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient areas is?
Q412 · Graves Disease
MediumWhich finding is specific to Graves disease rather than other causes of hyperthyroidism?
Q413 · Cushing Syndrome
HardWhich is the best initial screening test for Cushing syndrome?
Q414 · Addison Disease
MediumPrimary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) characteristically causes?
Q415 · Tuberculosis Regimen
NEET PGEasyThe standard intensive-phase regimen for new pulmonary tuberculosis includes?
Q416 · Severe Malaria
NEET PGMediumThe treatment of choice for severe Plasmodium falciparum malaria is?
Q417 · Dengue
NEET PGMediumWhich warning sign suggests progression to severe dengue?
Q418 · Enteric Fever
EasyThe causative organism of typhoid (enteric) fever is?
Q419 · HIV and AIDS
MediumA CD4 count below which threshold defines AIDS and prompts prophylaxis against Pneumocystis pneumonia?
Q420 · Bacterial Meningitis
HardIn suspected bacterial meningitis, which intervention improves outcome when given with or before the first antibiotic dose in adults?
Q421 · Leptospirosis
HardA patient with fever, jaundice, conjunctival suffusion and acute kidney injury after exposure to floodwater likely has?
Q422 · Stroke Territories
NEET PGMediumA patient with contralateral leg weakness greater than arm weakness has an infarct in which arterial territory?
Q423 · Multiple Sclerosis
NEET PGHardCerebrospinal fluid oligoclonal bands with lesions disseminated in time and space support a diagnosis of?
Q424 · Guillain-Barre Syndrome
NEET PGMediumAscending symmetrical weakness with areflexia days after a diarrhoeal illness, with raised CSF protein but few cells, suggests?
Q425 · Myasthenia Gravis
MediumFatiguable muscle weakness worsening through the day, with antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor, indicates?
Q426 · Parkinson Disease
EasyThe classic triad of Parkinson disease is bradykinesia, rigidity and?
Q427 · Status Epilepticus
EasyThe first-line drug for terminating a prolonged convulsive seizure (status epilepticus) is?
Q428 · COPD
NEET PGEasySpirometry showing a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC below 0.70 that is not fully reversible indicates?
Q429 · Pneumonia Severity
NEET PGMediumWhich scoring tool assesses the severity of community-acquired pneumonia?
Q430 · Pulmonary Embolism
MediumThe best initial investigation to confirm a suspected pulmonary embolism in a haemodynamically stable patient is?
Q431 · Asthma
EasyThe reliever medication of choice for acute asthma symptoms is a?
Q432 · Pleural Effusion
HardLight's criteria are used to distinguish?
Q433 · Peptic Ulcer Disease
NEET PGEasyFirst-line therapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori in peptic ulcer disease is?
Q434 · Liver Cirrhosis
MediumWhich scoring system assesses the severity and prognosis of liver cirrhosis?
Q435 · Inflammatory Bowel Disease
MediumWhich feature favours Crohn disease over ulcerative colitis?
Q436 · Acute Pancreatitis
HardThe two most common causes of acute pancreatitis are?
Q437 · Acute Kidney Injury
NEET PGMediumA patient with oliguria, a high urine osmolality and a low fractional excretion of sodium below 1% most likely has?
Q438 · Indications for Dialysis
EasyWhich is an emergency indication for dialysis in acute kidney injury?
Q439 · Nephritic Syndrome
HardHaematuria, hypertension and red-cell casts two weeks after a sore throat suggest?
Q440 · Rheumatoid Arthritis
NEET PGMediumWhich autoantibody is most specific for rheumatoid arthritis?
Q441 · Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
NEET PGMediumWhich antibody correlates with disease activity, particularly nephritis, in systemic lupus erythematosus?
Q442 · Gout
EasyJoint aspirate showing needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals confirms?
Q443 · Approach to Anaemia
NEET PGEasyA low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) indicates which category of anaemia?
Q444 · Pernicious Anaemia
NEET PGMediumMegaloblastic anaemia with neurological signs and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies indicates?
Q445 · Sickle Cell Crisis
MediumThe mainstay of managing an acute vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis is?
Q446 · Polycythaemia Vera
HardPolycythaemia vera is most strongly associated with a mutation in which gene?
Q447 · Thrombocytopenia
MediumIsolated low platelets with normal white cells and haemoglobin in an otherwise well young adult suggests?
Q448 · Haemophilia
MediumHaemophilia A is due to deficiency of which clotting factor?
Q449 · Multiple Myeloma
HardAn elderly patient with bone pain, anaemia, hypercalcaemia, renal impairment and a monoclonal band on serum electrophoresis has?
Q450 · Transfusion Reactions
EasyThe most common transfusion reaction, presenting with fever and chills without haemolysis, is?
Q451 · Wound Healing
NEET PGEasyWhich type of collagen predominates in early wound healing and is later replaced by type I collagen during maturation?
Q452 · Surgical Site Infection
NEET PGMediumA clean-contaminated surgical wound is best defined as one where?
Q453 · Fluid Management
MediumThe most appropriate initial fluid for resuscitation of a hypovolaemic surgical patient is?
Q454 · Suture Materials
EasyWhich of the following is an absorbable suture material?
Q455 · Shock
HardA trauma patient has cool, clammy skin, tachycardia, hypotension and a low jugular venous pressure. The most likely type of shock is?
Q456 · ATLS Primary Survey
NEET PGEasyIn the ATLS primary survey, what is the first priority in the assessment of a trauma patient?
Q457 · Tension Pneumothorax
NEET PGMediumA trauma patient develops severe respiratory distress, tracheal deviation away from the affected side, absent breath sounds and hypotension. The immediate management is?
Q458 · Abdominal Trauma
MediumIn a haemodynamically unstable patient with blunt abdominal trauma, the fastest appropriate bedside investigation is?
Q459 · Burns Resuscitation
HardThe Parkland formula for burns fluid resuscitation in the first 24 hours uses which crystalloid volume?
Q460 · Acute Appendicitis
NEET PGEasyThe point of maximum tenderness in acute appendicitis, located one-third of the way from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus, is called?
Q461 · Bowel Obstruction
NEET PGMediumThe most common cause of small bowel obstruction in an adult who has had previous abdominal surgery is?
Q462 · Perforated Peptic Ulcer
MediumA patient presents with sudden severe epigastric pain, a rigid board-like abdomen, and free gas under the diaphragm on an erect chest X-ray. The diagnosis is?
Q463 · Inguinal Hernia
NEET PGEasyAn indirect inguinal hernia passes through the deep inguinal ring, which is located?
Q464 · Strangulated Hernia
MediumA previously reducible groin hernia becomes tense, tender and irreducible, and the patient develops signs of bowel obstruction. This indicates?
Q465 · Colorectal Cancer
HardWhich tumour marker is most useful for monitoring recurrence after resection of colorectal carcinoma?
Q466 · Anal Fissure
EasySevere pain during defecation with bright red bleeding and a sentinel skin tag, most commonly in the posterior midline, suggests?
Q467 · Acute Cholecystitis
NEET PGEasyArrest of inspiration on deep palpation of the right upper quadrant in acute cholecystitis is called?
Q468 · Ascending Cholangitis
NEET PGMediumCharcot's triad, indicating ascending cholangitis, consists of?
Q469 · Courvoisier's Law
HardCourvoisier's law states that in a patient with painless jaundice and a palpable, non-tender gallbladder, the cause is unlikely to be?
Q470 · Acute Pancreatitis
MediumThe two most common causes of acute pancreatitis are?
Q471 · Triple Assessment
NEET PGMediumThe triple assessment of a breast lump consists of clinical examination, imaging and?
Q472 · Sentinel Node Biopsy
EasyThe first lymph node group to receive drainage from a breast tumour, sampled to guide axillary management, is the?
Q473 · Thyroidectomy Complications
HardHoarseness of voice after thyroidectomy is most likely due to injury of the?
Q474 · Post-thyroidectomy Hypocalcaemia
MediumPerioral tingling and carpopedal spasm a day after total thyroidectomy indicate?
Q475 · TNM Staging
NEET PGEasyIn the TNM staging system, the letter 'N' refers to?
Q476 · Malignant Melanoma
MediumThe most important prognostic factor in cutaneous malignant melanoma is?
Q477 · Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
NEET PGMediumA pulsatile, expansile abdominal mass with sudden severe back pain and hypotension in an elderly man suggests?
Q478 · Acute Limb Ischaemia
MediumThe '6 Ps' of acute limb ischaemia include pain, pallor, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis and?
Q479 · Renal Colic
EasyThe best initial imaging investigation for suspected renal or ureteric stones is?
Q480 · Testicular Torsion
HardA teenager presents with sudden severe testicular pain, a high-riding testis and an absent cremasteric reflex. The correct management is?
Q481 · Naegele's Rule
NEET PGEasyUsing Naegele's rule, the expected date of delivery is calculated from the first day of the last menstrual period by?
Q482 · Signs of Pregnancy
NEET PGEasyBluish discolouration of the vagina and cervix seen in early pregnancy is called?
Q483 · Fundal Height
MediumAt which gestational age does the fundus of the uterus normally reach the level of the umbilicus?
Q484 · Folic Acid
NEET PGEasyFolic acid supplementation before and in early pregnancy primarily prevents?
Q485 · Prenatal Screening
MediumA low maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level is associated with an increased risk of?
Q486 · Rh Isoimmunisation
HardAnti-D immunoglobulin is given to an Rh-negative mother to prevent?
Q487 · Physiological Changes
MediumWhich haematological change is a normal physiological finding in pregnancy?
Q488 · Stages of Labour
NEET PGEasyThe second stage of labour is defined as the period from?
Q489 · Fetal Presentation
NEET PGEasyThe most common and most favourable fetal presentation for vaginal delivery is?
Q490 · Partogram
MediumThe partogram is a graphical tool used during labour primarily to?
Q491 · Third Stage Management
NEET PGMediumThe first-line uterotonic drug for active management of the third stage of labour to prevent postpartum haemorrhage is?
Q492 · Fetal Monitoring
HardLate decelerations on cardiotocography (CTG), occurring after the peak of a contraction, most commonly indicate?
Q493 · Preterm Labour
EasyPreterm labour is defined as the onset of labour before?
Q494 · Fetal Lung Maturity
MediumAntenatal corticosteroids are given in threatened preterm labour primarily to?
Q495 · Placenta Praevia
NEET PGMediumPainless, causeless, recurrent bright-red vaginal bleeding in the late second or third trimester is characteristic of?
Q496 · Placental Abruption
NEET PGMediumPainful vaginal bleeding with a tense, tender, 'woody-hard' uterus in the third trimester suggests?
Q497 · Ectopic Pregnancy
NEET PGEasyThe most common site of an ectopic pregnancy is the?
Q498 · Pre-eclampsia
NEET PGMediumPre-eclampsia is defined as new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation accompanied by?
Q499 · Eclampsia
MediumThe drug of choice to prevent and treat seizures in eclampsia is?
Q500 · Postpartum Haemorrhage
NEET PGEasyThe most common cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage is?
Q501 · Hydatidiform Mole
HardA patient has a uterus larger than expected for dates, very high beta-hCG, and vaginal bleeding with grape-like vesicles. The diagnosis is?
Q502 · Shoulder Dystocia
HardThe first-line manoeuvre for managing shoulder dystocia is?
Q503 · Gestational Diabetes
NEET PGMediumThe screening and diagnostic test of choice for gestational diabetes mellitus is?
Q504 · Anaemia in Pregnancy
EasyThe most common cause of anaemia in pregnancy is?
Q505 · Drugs in Pregnancy
HardWhich antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy due to fetal renal and skull defects?
Q506 · Hyperemesis Gravidarum
MediumSevere, persistent vomiting in pregnancy causing dehydration, ketosis, and weight loss is termed?
Q507 · TORCH Infections
MediumWhich congenital infection classically causes the triad of sensorineural deafness, cataracts, and congenital heart disease?
Q508 · Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
NEET PGMediumCervical motion tenderness ('cervical excitation') on bimanual examination is a classic sign of?
Q509 · Endometriosis
MediumA young woman has cyclical pelvic pain, painful periods, deep dyspareunia, and infertility. The likely diagnosis is?
Q510 · Uterine Fibroids
NEET PGEasyThe most common benign tumour of the uterus is?
Q511 · Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
NEET PGMediumThe Rotterdam criteria for diagnosing polycystic ovary syndrome require at least two of oligo-ovulation or anovulation, polycystic ovaries on ultrasound, and?
Q512 · Ovarian Torsion
HardSudden severe unilateral pelvic pain with nausea and a tender adnexal mass, with absent ovarian flow on Doppler, indicates?
Q513 · Pelvic Organ Prolapse
EasyDescent of the bladder into the anterior vaginal wall is called?
Q514 · Secondary Amenorrhoea
NEET PGEasyThe most common physiological cause of secondary amenorrhoea in a woman of reproductive age is?
Q515 · Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
MediumThe first-line medical treatment for heavy menstrual bleeding in a woman not desiring immediate fertility is?
Q516 · Menopause
EasyMenopause is confirmed clinically after how long without menstruation?
Q517 · Primary Amenorrhoea
HardA phenotypic female with primary amenorrhoea, normal breast development, absent uterus, and a 46,XY karyotype most likely has?
Q518 · Cervical Cancer
NEET PGEasyThe principal causative agent of cervical carcinoma is?
Q519 · Cervical Screening
NEET PGMediumThe Pap smear is a screening test used to detect?
Q520 · Endometrial Cancer
MediumThe most common presenting symptom of endometrial carcinoma is?
Q521 · Ovarian Cancer Markers
HardWhich tumour marker is most commonly used to monitor epithelial ovarian carcinoma?
Q522 · Ovarian Cancer Presentation
MediumOvarian cancer is often diagnosed late because?
Q523 · Combined Oral Contraceptive
NEET PGMediumThe primary mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill is?
Q524 · Contraindications to the Pill
HardThe combined oral contraceptive pill is contraindicated in a woman with?
Q525 · Emergency Contraception
MediumThe most effective method of emergency contraception is?
Q526 · Copper IUCD
EasyThe copper intrauterine contraceptive device works primarily by?
Q527 · Male Factor Evaluation
NEET PGMediumThe single most informative first-line investigation in the male partner of an infertile couple is?
Q528 · Confirming Ovulation
MediumA mid-luteal (day 21) serum progesterone level is measured in infertility work-up to confirm?
Q529 · Tubal Patency
EasyWhich investigation is used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes in an infertility work-up?
Q530 · Ovulation Induction in PCOS
HardThe traditional first-line drug for ovulation induction in anovulatory infertility due to PCOS is?
Q531 · APGAR Score
NEET PGEasyThe APGAR score assesses all of the following EXCEPT?
Q532 · Neonatal Resuscitation
NEET PGMediumThe first step in resuscitation of a newborn who is not breathing after initial warming, drying, and stimulation is?
Q533 · Physiological Jaundice
NEET PGEasyPhysiological jaundice of the newborn characteristically appears?
Q534 · Kernicterus
HardKernicterus, the neurological complication of severe neonatal jaundice, results from deposition of?
Q535 · Respiratory Distress Syndrome
NEET PGMediumRespiratory distress syndrome of the newborn (hyaline membrane disease) is caused by a deficiency of?
Q536 · Newborn Prophylaxis
EasyVitamin K is given to all newborns at birth to prevent?
Q537 · TORCH Infections
MediumA neonate with microcephaly, intracranial calcifications, and chorioretinitis was most likely exposed in utero to?
Q538 · Neonatal Sepsis
HardThe most common organism causing early-onset neonatal sepsis is?
Q539 · Developmental Milestones
NEET PGEasyAt approximately what age does a normal infant achieve social smiling?
Q540 · Motor Milestones
NEET PGEasyAt what age does a normal child typically begin to sit without support?
Q541 · Birth Weight
MediumA normal term infant regains its birth weight and then typically doubles it by approximately?
Q542 · Anterior Fontanelle
NEET PGMediumThe anterior fontanelle normally closes by what age?
Q543 · Speech Milestones
EasyBy what age does a normal child typically speak 2 to 3 words with meaning?
Q544 · Primitive Reflexes
HardThe Moro reflex in a normal infant should disappear by approximately?
Q545 · Dentition
MediumThe first primary (milk) teeth usually erupt at approximately what age?
Q546 · Breastfeeding
NEET PGEasyExclusive breastfeeding is recommended for the first?
Q547 · Colostrum
EasyColostrum, the first breast milk, is particularly rich in?
Q548 · Rickets
NEET PGMediumBowing of the legs, widening of the wrists, and a rachitic rosary in a toddler indicate deficiency of?
Q549 · Kwashiorkor
NEET PGMediumA child with bilateral pedal oedema, a distended abdomen, and depigmented hair, with preserved subcutaneous fat, has?
Q550 · Vitamin A Deficiency
EasyNight blindness and Bitot spots in a child indicate deficiency of?
Q551 · Diarrhoea Management
HardAlong with oral rehydration solution, which supplement is recommended for a child with acute diarrhoea to reduce its duration and severity?
Q552 · Measles
NEET PGMediumSmall white spots on a red buccal mucosa (Koplik spots) are pathognomonic of?
Q553 · Measles Complications
HardThe most common cause of death in measles is?
Q554 · Whooping Cough
MediumParoxysmal coughing followed by an inspiratory 'whoop' in an unimmunised infant suggests infection with?
Q555 · Diphtheria
NEET PGMediumA grey adherent pseudomembrane over the tonsils and pharynx that bleeds on removal in an unimmunised child suggests?
Q556 · Bronchiolitis
MediumThe most common cause of acute bronchiolitis in infants is?
Q557 · Croup
EasyA barking (seal-like) cough with inspiratory stridor in a young child, usually viral, is characteristic of?
Q558 · Febrile Seizures
MediumA simple febrile seizure in a child is typically?
Q559 · Acyanotic Heart Disease
NEET PGMediumThe most common congenital heart defect overall is?
Q560 · Cyanotic Heart Disease
HardThe most common cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting beyond the neonatal period is?
Q561 · Rheumatic Fever
NEET PGMediumThe diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever is based on which criteria?
Q562 · Asthma
EasyThe first-line reliever medication for acute childhood asthma symptoms is?
Q563 · Kawasaki Disease
HardA child with prolonged fever, conjunctivitis, cracked lips, cervical lymphadenopathy, and desquamation of the fingertips is at risk of which complication if untreated?
Q564 · Down Syndrome
NEET PGEasyDown syndrome is most commonly caused by?
Q565 · Turner Syndrome
MediumA girl with short stature, webbed neck, widely spaced nipples, and primary amenorrhoea most likely has?
Q566 · Congenital Hypothyroidism
NEET PGMediumUntreated congenital hypothyroidism in an infant leads to?
Q567 · Phenylketonuria
HardAn infant identified on newborn screening with phenylketonuria should be managed with?
Q568 · Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
HardA boy with progressive proximal muscle weakness, calf pseudohypertrophy, and a positive Gower's sign most likely has?
Q569 · Childhood Leukaemia
NEET PGMediumThe most common malignancy in children is?
Q570 · Wilms Tumour
MediumA painless, smooth abdominal mass that does not cross the midline in a young child, with haematuria, suggests?
Q571 · Thalassaemia
HardA child with severe microcytic anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, and frontal bossing needing repeated transfusions likely has?
Q572 · Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura
MediumA well child develops petechiae and bruising a couple of weeks after a viral infection, with isolated thrombocytopenia and an otherwise normal blood count. The likely diagnosis is?
Q573 · Vaccines at Birth
NEET PGEasyWhich vaccine is given at birth to protect against tuberculosis?
Q574 · Live Vaccines
MediumWhich of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
Q575 · Dehydration Assessment
NEET PGMediumWhich sign best indicates severe dehydration in a child with diarrhoea?
Q576 · Intussusception
HardAn infant with intermittent colicky pain, drawing up of the legs, and 'red-currant jelly' stools most likely has?
Q577 · Pyloric Stenosis
MediumA 4-week-old presents with projectile non-bilious vomiting and a palpable 'olive' mass in the epigastrium. The diagnosis is?
Q578 · Hirschsprung Disease
HardA newborn with delayed passage of meconium beyond 48 hours, abdominal distension, and bilious vomiting, later found to have an aganglionic segment of colon, has?
Q579 · Nephrotic Syndrome
NEET PGMediumThe most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children is?
Q580 · Non-accidental Injury
HardWhich pattern of injury should raise strong suspicion of non-accidental injury (child abuse)?
Q581 · Fracture Healing
NEET PGEasyWhich is the correct sequence of stages in secondary fracture healing?
Q582 · Compartment Syndrome
NEET PGMediumThe earliest and most reliable clinical sign of acute compartment syndrome is?
Q583 · Fat Embolism
HardA young patient with a femoral shaft fracture develops dyspnoea, confusion, and a petechial rash 24 to 48 hours after injury. The likely diagnosis is?
Q584 · Open Fracture
MediumThe immediate priorities in managing an open (compound) fracture include antibiotics, tetanus prophylaxis, and?
Q585 · Delayed Union
EasyA fracture that fails to unite within the expected time but still shows healing potential is termed?
Q586 · Pathological Fracture
MediumA fracture occurring through abnormal bone weakened by disease, after minimal or no trauma, is called?
Q587 · Stress Fracture
HardA military recruit develops gradual-onset foot pain with a normal initial X-ray but a positive bone scan. The likely diagnosis is?
Q588 · Colles Fracture
NEET PGEasyA Colles fracture is a fracture of the distal radius with?
Q589 · Scaphoid Fracture
NEET PGMediumA scaphoid fracture is prone to avascular necrosis because?
Q590 · Supracondylar Fracture
HardWhich nerve is most commonly injured in a supracondylar fracture of the humerus in children?
Q591 · Shoulder Dislocation
NEET PGEasyThe most common direction of shoulder (glenohumeral) dislocation is?
Q592 · Humeral Shaft Fracture
MediumWrist drop after a mid-shaft humeral fracture indicates injury to the?
Q593 · Clavicle Fracture
EasyThe most common site of a clavicle fracture is the?
Q594 · Monteggia Fracture
HardA Monteggia fracture-dislocation consists of?
Q595 · Femoral Neck Fracture
NEET PGMediumAn elderly patient after a fall has a shortened, externally rotated limb and cannot weight-bear. The most likely injury is?
Q596 · Avascular Necrosis
HardDisplaced intracapsular femoral neck fractures risk avascular necrosis of the femoral head because?
Q597 · Hip Dislocation
MediumIn a posterior hip dislocation, such as a dashboard injury, the limb is typically?
Q598 · Knee Ligament Injury
NEET PGMediumA positive anterior drawer test and Lachman test indicate injury to the?
Q599 · Meniscal Injury
EasyLocking of the knee and joint-line tenderness after a twisting injury suggest?
Q600 · Ankle Injury
MediumThe Ottawa ankle rules are used to?
Q601 · Achilles Tendon Rupture
HardA middle-aged person feels a sudden 'kick' to the back of the ankle during sport and cannot plantarflex; squeezing the calf produces no foot movement. This positive test is?
Q602 · Disc Prolapse
NEET PGMediumA prolapsed L5-S1 intervertebral disc most commonly compresses which nerve root?
Q603 · Cauda Equina Syndrome
NEET PGHardWhich feature of a large central disc prolapse constitutes a surgical emergency?
Q604 · Straight Leg Raise
EasyA positive straight-leg-raise test suggests?
Q605 · Ankylosing Spondylitis
MediumA young man with chronic low back pain and stiffness worse in the morning and better with exercise, with a 'bamboo spine' on X-ray, likely has?
Q606 · Spinal Tuberculosis
HardTuberculosis of the spine (Pott's disease) most commonly affects which part of the vertebra first?
Q607 · Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
NEET PGMediumWhich clinical tests are used to screen a newborn for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
Q608 · Greenstick Fracture
NEET PGEasyA greenstick fracture, seen in children, is one where?
Q609 · Growth Plate Injury
HardFractures involving the growth plate (physis) in children are classified using the?
Q610 · Perthes Disease
MediumA child aged 4 to 8 years presents with a limp and hip pain; imaging shows avascular necrosis of the femoral head. The diagnosis is?
Q611 · Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
HardAn overweight adolescent presents with hip or knee pain and an externally rotated limb; the femoral epiphysis has slipped. The diagnosis is?
Q612 · Clubfoot
EasyThe mainstay of initial treatment for congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot) is?
Q613 · Osteomyelitis
NEET PGMediumThe most common causative organism of acute haematogenous osteomyelitis is?
Q614 · Septic Arthritis
HardA child with a hot, swollen, exquisitely painful knee held still, with fever, most urgently needs?
Q615 · Osteosarcoma
NEET PGMediumThe most common primary malignant bone tumour, typically arising around the knee in adolescents with a 'sunburst' periosteal reaction, is?
Q616 · Ewing Sarcoma
HardA small round blue cell bone tumour in a child, showing an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction and the t(11;22) translocation, is?
Q617 · Bone Metastases
MediumWhich primary cancers most commonly metastasise to bone?
Q618 · Giant Cell Tumour
HardA benign but locally aggressive bone tumour with a 'soap-bubble' appearance at the epiphysis of a long bone, such as the distal femur, in a young adult is?
Q619 · Osteoarthritis
NEET PGEasyWhich X-ray feature is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
Q620 · Rheumatoid Arthritis
MediumWhich joint distribution is typical of rheumatoid arthritis?
Q621 · Gout
NEET PGMediumAcute gout is caused by deposition of which crystals in the joint?
Q622 · Osteoporosis
EasyThe investigation of choice to diagnose and grade osteoporosis is?
Q623 · Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
NEET PGEasyCarpal tunnel syndrome is due to compression of which nerve at the wrist?
Q624 · Ulnar Nerve Injury
MediumA 'claw hand' deformity with wasting of the interossei results from injury to which nerve?
Q625 · Dupuytren Contracture
MediumProgressive flexion contracture of the ring and little fingers due to thickening of the palmar fascia is called?
Q626 · Volkmann Ischaemic Contracture
HardVolkmann's ischaemic contracture of the forearm is a late complication of?
Q627 · Trigger Finger
EasyA finger that catches or locks in flexion and then releases with a painful snap indicates?
Q628 · Frozen Shoulder
MediumPainful, progressive global restriction of both active and passive shoulder movement, common in diabetics, describes?
Q629 · Tennis Elbow
EasyPain over the lateral epicondyle of the elbow, worse on resisted wrist extension, is characteristic of?
Q630 · Rotator Cuff
HardWhich muscle of the rotator cuff is most commonly involved in rotator cuff tears and impingement?
Q631 · Trachoma
NEET PGMediumTrachoma, a leading infectious cause of blindness, is caused by?
Q632 · Corneal Ulcer
NEET PGMediumA dendritic corneal ulcer that stains with fluorescein is characteristic of infection by?
Q633 · Ophthalmia Neonatorum
HardHyperacute purulent conjunctivitis in a newborn within the first 48 hours of life is most likely due to?
Q634 · Keratoconus
MediumProgressive conical protrusion and thinning of the cornea, causing irregular astigmatism, is called?
Q635 · Pterygium
EasyA pterygium is a triangular fibrovascular growth of conjunctiva that encroaches onto the cornea, most commonly from the?
Q636 · Vitamin A Deficiency
NEET PGEasyXerophthalmia and Bitot spots on the conjunctiva result from deficiency of?
Q637 · Allergic Conjunctivitis
EasyBilateral itchy, watery eyes with stringy mucoid discharge and a papillary reaction, often seasonal, indicate?
Q638 · Dry Eye
EasyWhich test measures tear production to assess dry eye (keratoconjunctivitis sicca)?
Q639 · Chemical Injury
HardThe immediate first-aid management of a chemical (acid or alkali) eye injury is?
Q640 · Senile Cataract
NEET PGEasyThe most common cause of cataract worldwide is?
Q641 · Cataract Surgery
NEET PGMediumThe most commonly performed modern technique for cataract extraction is?
Q642 · Congenital Cataract
HardA congenital cataract in a neonate whose mother had a first-trimester rash and fever is most likely associated with?
Q643 · Leukocoria
HardA white pupillary reflex (leukocoria) in a young child must be urgently evaluated to exclude?
Q644 · Lens Dislocation
MediumSuperior (upward) lens dislocation is classically associated with which systemic condition?
Q645 · Aphakia
MediumAphakia refers to?
Q646 · Avoidable Blindness
MediumA major and treatable cause of blindness that can be prevented by timely surgery is?
Q647 · Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma
NEET PGMediumA patient presents with a sudden painful red eye, a fixed mid-dilated pupil, haloes around lights, and nausea. The likely diagnosis is?
Q648 · Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma
NEET PGEasyPrimary open-angle glaucoma characteristically causes?
Q649 · Optic Disc Cupping
MediumWhich optic disc finding is characteristic of glaucomatous damage?
Q650 · Glaucoma Medications
HardWhich class of topical drug lowers intraocular pressure by increasing uveoscleral outflow and is often first-line in open-angle glaucoma?
Q651 · Tonometry
EasyIntraocular pressure is measured clinically by?
Q652 · Precipitants of Angle Closure
HardWhich drug is contraindicated, or given only with care, as it can precipitate acute angle-closure glaucoma in a susceptible eye?
Q653 · Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
NEET PGMediumSudden, painless, profound loss of vision in one eye with a 'cherry-red spot' at the macula indicates?
Q654 · Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
MediumA fundus showing widespread retinal haemorrhages in all four quadrants ('blood and thunder' appearance) with dilated tortuous veins indicates?
Q655 · Retinal Detachment
NEET PGMediumSudden flashes of light, a shower of floaters, and a 'curtain' descending over the vision suggest?
Q656 · Diabetic Retinopathy
NEET PGEasyThe hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is?
Q657 · Hypertensive Retinopathy
MediumWhich fundus finding is characteristic of advanced (malignant) hypertensive retinopathy?
Q658 · Age-Related Macular Degeneration
MediumThe leading cause of central vision loss in the elderly in developed countries is?
Q659 · Retinopathy of Prematurity
HardA major risk factor for retinopathy of prematurity in a preterm neonate is?
Q660 · Anterior Uveitis
NEET PGMediumA patient presents with a painful red eye, photophobia, a small irregular pupil, and cells in the anterior chamber. The diagnosis is?
Q661 · Uveitis Associations
HardAnterior uveitis is classically associated with which group of systemic conditions?
Q662 · Retinoblastoma
MediumThe most common primary intraocular malignancy of childhood is?
Q663 · Sympathetic Ophthalmia
HardBilateral granulomatous uveitis developing after penetrating trauma to one eye, threatening the uninjured eye, is called?
Q664 · Myopia
NEET PGEasyIn myopia (short-sightedness), parallel rays of light focus?
Q665 · Hypermetropia
EasyHypermetropia (long-sightedness) is corrected with which type of lens?
Q666 · Astigmatism
MediumAstigmatism, causing distorted vision due to an irregularly curved cornea, is corrected with?
Q667 · Presbyopia
NEET PGEasyAge-related loss of near vision due to reduced accommodation of the lens is called?
Q668 · Amblyopia
MediumAmblyopia ('lazy eye') is best treated during which period for the greatest chance of recovery?
Q669 · Strabismus
MediumWhich simple test is used to detect and assess a squint (strabismus)?
Q670 · Optic Neuritis
NEET PGMediumA young adult has subacute painful monocular vision loss with impaired colour vision and a relative afferent pupillary defect. This suggests?
Q671 · Papilloedema
MediumBilateral optic disc swelling (papilloedema) is most commonly caused by?
Q672 · Third Nerve Palsy
HardA patient has ptosis with the eye 'down and out' and a fixed dilated pupil. This indicates palsy of which cranial nerve?
Q673 · Visual Field Defects
HardA bitemporal hemianopia, loss of the outer half of each visual field, localises a lesion to the?
Q674 · Colour Vision
EasyWhich test is used to screen for red-green colour vision deficiency?
Q675 · Stye
EasyAn acute, painful, localised swelling at the lid margin due to infection of an eyelash follicle is called?
Q676 · Chalazion
EasyA painless, firm, chronic swelling in the eyelid due to blockage of a meibomian gland is a?
Q677 · Entropion and Ectropion
MediumInward turning of the eyelid margin, causing the lashes to rub the cornea, is called?
Q678 · Dacryocystitis
MediumA painful swelling at the medial canthus with watering, due to infection of the tear sac, is?
Q679 · Orbital Cellulitis
NEET PGHardWhich feature distinguishes orbital (post-septal) cellulitis from preseptal cellulitis and marks it as a sight- and life-threatening emergency?
Q680 · Thyroid Eye Disease
MediumBilateral proptosis with lid retraction and restricted eye movements is most commonly associated with?
Q681 · Otitis Externa
NEET PGEasyA patient has ear pain markedly worsened by pulling on the pinna, with a swollen, discharging ear canal. The diagnosis is?
Q682 · Acute Otitis Media
NEET PGEasyThe most common organism causing acute otitis media in children is?
Q683 · Otitis Media with Effusion
MediumA child with painless hearing loss and a retracted, dull tympanic membrane with fluid behind it ('glue ear') has?
Q684 · Cholesteatoma
NEET PGHardA patient with chronic foul-smelling ear discharge and an attic retraction pocket filled with keratin debris has?
Q685 · Otosclerosis
MediumA young adult presents with progressive conductive hearing loss and a normal-looking tympanic membrane, due to fixation of the stapes footplate. The diagnosis is?
Q686 · Mastoiditis
HardAcute mastoiditis, a complication of otitis media, characteristically causes?
Q687 · Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media
MediumA central perforation of the tympanic membrane with mucoid discharge, without cholesteatoma, is typical of?
Q688 · Ear Foreign Body
EasyFor a live insect lodged in the external ear canal, the appropriate first step before removal is to?
Q689 · Weber Test
NEET PGMediumIn a conductive hearing loss of the right ear, the Weber test will?
Q690 · Rinne Test
EasyA 'positive' Rinne test, where air conduction is better than bone conduction, indicates?
Q691 · Meniere Disease
NEET PGMediumThe classic triad of Meniere disease is?
Q692 · Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
MediumBrief episodes of vertigo triggered by head position change, diagnosed with the Dix-Hallpike test, indicate?
Q693 · Acoustic Neuroma
NEET PGHardProgressive unilateral sensorineural hearing loss with tinnitus, arising from the vestibular nerve at the cerebellopontine angle, suggests?
Q694 · Presbycusis
EasyAge-related sensorineural hearing loss, typically affecting high frequencies first, is called?
Q695 · Ototoxicity
HardWhich class of antibiotics is well known for causing ototoxicity, damaging cochlear and vestibular function?
Q696 · Epistaxis
NEET PGEasyThe most common site of anterior epistaxis (nosebleed) is?
Q697 · Allergic Rhinitis
EasySneezing, watery rhinorrhoea, nasal itching, and congestion, often seasonal, are typical of?
Q698 · Sinusitis
NEET PGMediumThe most commonly affected paranasal sinus in acute sinusitis in adults is the?
Q699 · Nasal Polyps
MediumBilateral nasal polyps causing obstruction and anosmia are commonly associated with?
Q700 · Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma
NEET PGHardA benign but highly vascular nasopharyngeal tumour causing recurrent severe epistaxis in adolescent boys is?
Q701 · CSF Rhinorrhoea
HardClear watery nasal discharge after head trauma that tests positive for beta-2 transferrin indicates?
Q702 · Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
MediumNasopharyngeal carcinoma is strongly associated with which virus?
Q703 · Mucormycosis
HardA poorly controlled diabetic presents with facial pain, a black necrotic eschar in the nasal cavity, and orbital swelling. The likely diagnosis is?
Q704 · Rhinitis Medicamentosa
MediumRebound nasal congestion caused by prolonged use of topical nasal decongestants is called?
Q705 · Atrophic Rhinitis
HardA patient has a wide, crusted nasal cavity with a foul smell of which the patient is unaware (merciful anosmia). This describes?
Q706 · Tonsillitis
NEET PGEasyThe most common bacterial cause of acute tonsillitis is?
Q707 · Peritonsillar Abscess
NEET PGMediumA patient with severe unilateral sore throat, trismus, a muffled 'hot potato' voice, and uvular deviation has?
Q708 · Adenoid Hypertrophy
MediumA child with mouth breathing, nasal-sounding speech, snoring, and recurrent otitis media most likely has?
Q709 · Retropharyngeal Abscess
HardA young child with fever, neck stiffness, drooling, and difficulty swallowing, with a bulge in the posterior pharyngeal wall, likely has?
Q710 · Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
MediumThe gold-standard investigation for obstructive sleep apnoea is?
Q711 · Ludwig Angina
HardA rapidly spreading cellulitis of the submandibular and sublingual spaces, often from a dental infection, that threatens the airway is?
Q712 · Hoarseness
NEET PGMediumPersistent hoarseness lasting more than 3 weeks in a smoker must be investigated to exclude?
Q713 · Vocal Cord Nodules
EasyBilateral vocal cord nodules ('singer's nodules') at the junction of the anterior and middle thirds of the cords are caused by?
Q714 · Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve
NEET PGHardUnilateral vocal cord palsy causing hoarseness after thyroid surgery is due to injury of the?
Q715 · Laryngomalacia
MediumThe most common cause of stridor in a neonate or infant, typically improving by 18 to 24 months, is?
Q716 · Laryngeal Carcinoma
EasyThe strongest risk factor for laryngeal carcinoma is?
Q717 · Thyroglossal Cyst
NEET PGMediumA midline neck swelling that moves upward on swallowing and on protruding the tongue is a?
Q718 · Branchial Cyst
MediumA smooth, fluctuant swelling at the upper third of the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid in a young adult is most likely a?
Q719 · Cystic Hygroma
HardA soft, brilliantly transilluminant neck swelling in an infant, arising from lymphatic malformation, is a?
Q720 · Neck Node Evaluation
MediumThe first-line investigation of a persistent, firm, painless neck lump suspicious for malignancy is?
Q721 · Parotid Tumour
NEET PGMediumThe most common benign tumour of the parotid gland is?
Q722 · Sialolithiasis
MediumPain and swelling of the submandibular gland that worsen at mealtimes suggest?
Q723 · Mumps
EasyBilateral painful parotid swelling in an unimmunised child, caused by a virus, is typical of?
Q724 · Bell's Palsy
NEET PGMediumBell's palsy is an idiopathic lower motor neuron paralysis affecting which cranial nerve?
Q725 · Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
HardFacial palsy with painful vesicles in the ear and reactivation of varicella-zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion is called?
Q726 · Airway Foreign Body
NEET PGMediumAn inhaled foreign body in a child most commonly lodges in the?
Q727 · Epiglottitis
NEET PGHardA child with rapid-onset high fever, drooling, a muffled voice, and a preference to sit leaning forward, without a cough, most likely has?
Q728 · Tracheostomy
MediumA key indication for tracheostomy is?
Q729 · Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss
HardSudden sensorineural hearing loss is regarded as an emergency because?
Q730 · Septal Haematoma
MediumAfter nasal trauma, which finding must be actively excluded and drained urgently to prevent septal cartilage necrosis?
Q731 · Impetigo
NEET PGEasyA child has superficial pustules that rupture to form golden-yellow 'honey-coloured' crusts around the mouth and nose. The diagnosis is?
Q732 · Erysipelas
MediumA well-demarcated, raised, red, tender area on the face with fever, caused by Streptococcus, is?
Q733 · Herpes Zoster
NEET PGMediumA painful vesicular rash in a unilateral dermatomal distribution that does not cross the midline is characteristic of?
Q734 · Molluscum Contagiosum
EasyMultiple small, dome-shaped, pearly papules with central umbilication in a child are typical of?
Q735 · Warts
EasyCutaneous warts (verrucae) are caused by?
Q736 · Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome
HardA young child with widespread superficial skin peeling and a positive Nikolsky sign, due to a staphylococcal toxin, has?
Q737 · Cellulitis
MediumThe most common organisms causing cellulitis of the lower limb are?
Q738 · Tinea
NEET PGEasyAn itchy, annular (ring-shaped) lesion with central clearing and an active scaly raised border is characteristic of?
Q739 · KOH Mount
EasyThe simple bedside investigation used to confirm a superficial fungal (dermatophyte) infection is?
Q740 · Pityriasis Versicolor
MediumWell-demarcated hypopigmented or hyperpigmented scaly macules on the trunk, caused by Malassezia, describe?
Q741 · Scabies
NEET PGMediumIntense nocturnal itching with burrows in the finger webs and wrists, affecting several family members, is caused by?
Q742 · Scabies Treatment
EasyThe first-line topical treatment for scabies is?
Q743 · Cutaneous Candidiasis
MediumCutaneous candidiasis characteristically affects which areas and shows which feature?
Q744 · Psoriasis
NEET PGEasyWell-defined red plaques with silvery-white scales on the extensor surfaces such as elbows and knees, and on the scalp, are characteristic of?
Q745 · Auspitz Sign
MediumThe Auspitz sign, pinpoint bleeding on removing scale, is characteristically seen in?
Q746 · Koebner Phenomenon
HardThe appearance of new skin lesions at sites of trauma (the Koebner phenomenon) is seen in psoriasis and also classically in?
Q747 · Lichen Planus
NEET PGMediumWhich description best fits lichen planus?
Q748 · Pityriasis Rosea
MediumA single larger 'herald patch' followed by smaller oval lesions in a 'Christmas tree' distribution on the trunk describes?
Q749 · Psoriasis Treatment
EasyThe typical first-line topical treatment for mild plaque psoriasis includes?
Q750 · Guttate Psoriasis
HardGuttate psoriasis, with multiple small 'drop-like' lesions, especially in young people, is classically triggered by?
Q751 · Atopic Dermatitis
NEET PGEasyIn infants and young children, atopic dermatitis (eczema) classically affects the?
Q752 · Contact Dermatitis
MediumThe investigation used to identify the allergen in allergic contact dermatitis is?
Q753 · Eczema Management
EasyThe cornerstone of long-term management of atopic dermatitis is?
Q754 · Urticaria
NEET PGEasyTransient, itchy wheals that individually resolve within 24 hours, mediated by histamine, describe?
Q755 · Seborrhoeic Dermatitis
MediumGreasy, yellowish scales on the scalp, eyebrows, and nasolabial folds, linked to Malassezia, describe?
Q756 · Acne
EasySevere cystic or nodular acne that is unresponsive to other treatments is managed with?
Q757 · Pemphigus Vulgaris
NEET PGHardFlaccid blisters that rupture easily leaving erosions, with a positive Nikolsky sign and oral involvement, due to antibodies against desmoglein, describe?
Q758 · Bullous Pemphigoid
HardTense, non-fragile blisters in an elderly patient with a negative Nikolsky sign, due to antibodies against the basement membrane, describe?
Q759 · Nikolsky Sign
MediumA positive Nikolsky sign, skin sloughing with lateral pressure, is seen in all of the following EXCEPT?
Q760 · Dermatitis Herpetiformis
HardIntensely itchy grouped vesicles on the extensor surfaces, associated with coeliac disease, describe?
Q761 · Erythema Multiforme
MediumTarget (iris) lesions with a central dusky zone, often following herpes simplex infection, describe?
Q762 · Vitiligo
NEET PGEasyWell-demarcated, depigmented (chalky-white) macules due to loss of melanocytes describe?
Q763 · Melasma
MediumSymmetrical brown patches on the cheeks, forehead, and upper lip, worsened by sun and pregnancy, describe?
Q764 · Alopecia Areata
MediumSudden, well-circumscribed patches of non-scarring hair loss with 'exclamation mark' hairs describe?
Q765 · Androgenetic Alopecia
EasyWhich topical drug is used to treat androgenetic (pattern) hair loss?
Q766 · Nail Psoriasis
HardNail pitting, onycholysis, and an 'oil-drop' sign are nail changes classically associated with?
Q767 · Primary Syphilis
NEET PGMediumA single, painless, indurated genital ulcer (chancre) with firm regional lymphadenopathy indicates?
Q768 · Chancroid
HardPainful, soft genital ulcers with ragged undermined edges and tender suppurative lymphadenopathy, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, describe?
Q769 · Genital Herpes
EasyRecurrent, painful, grouped vesicles and ulcers on the genitalia are most commonly caused by?
Q770 · Leprosy
NEET PGMediumA hypopigmented, anaesthetic skin patch, with loss of sensation, and a thickened peripheral nerve is characteristic of?
Q771 · Leprosy Classification
HardLepromatous (multibacillary) leprosy, compared with tuberculoid, is characterised by?
Q772 · Basal Cell Carcinoma
NEET PGMediumA slow-growing, pearly, rolled-edge nodule with central ulceration and telangiectasia on the face of an elderly person is most likely?
Q773 · Squamous Cell Carcinoma
MediumA rapidly growing, keratotic or ulcerated nodule on sun-damaged skin or a chronic wound, with potential to metastasise, is most likely?
Q774 · Melanoma ABCDE Rule
NEET PGEasyIn the ABCDE rule for melanoma, the 'E' stands for?
Q775 · Melanoma Prognosis
HardThe most important prognostic factor in cutaneous melanoma is?
Q776 · Actinic Keratosis
MediumRough, scaly, sandpaper-like patches on chronically sun-exposed skin, which are premalignant, are called?
Q777 · Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
NEET PGHardA patient develops mucosal erosions and widespread skin detachment, under 10% of body surface area, after starting a new drug. This is?
Q778 · Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
HardToxic epidermal necrolysis is distinguished from Stevens-Johnson syndrome by?
Q779 · Fixed Drug Eruption
MediumA well-defined round, dusky patch that recurs at exactly the same skin site each time a particular drug is taken describes?
Q780 · Erythema Nodosum
HardTender, red, raised nodules on the shins, often associated with sarcoidosis, streptococcal infection, or tuberculosis, describe?
Q781 · Major Depression
NEET PGEasyThe minimum duration of persistently low mood and related symptoms required to diagnose a major depressive episode is?
Q782 · Biological Symptoms
MediumWhich is a classic biological (somatic) symptom of severe depression?
Q783 · Mania
NEET PGMediumWhich cluster of features is characteristic of a manic episode?
Q784 · Bipolar Disorder
MediumBipolar I disorder is defined by the occurrence of at least one?
Q785 · Suicide Risk Assessment
HardWhich factor is associated with a higher risk of completed suicide?
Q786 · Postpartum Psychosis
MediumA mother, two weeks after delivery, develops delusions, disorganised behaviour, and thoughts of harming her baby. This is?
Q787 · Persistent Depressive Disorder
HardChronic low-grade depressive symptoms present for most of the day, more days than not, for at least 2 years, describe?
Q788 · Schizophrenia Criteria
NEET PGEasyUnder DSM-5, the minimum duration of continuous disturbance required to diagnose schizophrenia is?
Q789 · Positive Symptoms
EasyWhich is a 'positive' symptom of schizophrenia?
Q790 · First-Rank Symptoms
NEET PGHardWhich is a Schneiderian first-rank symptom of schizophrenia?
Q791 · Types of Delusion
MediumA fixed false belief that one's partner is being unfaithful, held despite no evidence, is which type of delusion?
Q792 · Brief Psychotic Disorder
MediumSudden onset of psychotic symptoms lasting more than a day but fully resolving within 1 month describes?
Q793 · Delusional Disorder
HardA patient holds a single, non-bizarre fixed delusion for months but otherwise functions normally without other psychotic features. This is?
Q794 · Prognosis in Schizophrenia
MediumWhich feature suggests a BETTER prognosis in schizophrenia?
Q795 · Panic Disorder
NEET PGEasyRecurrent, unexpected episodes of intense fear peaking within minutes, with palpitations, sweating, and a fear of dying, describe?
Q796 · Generalised Anxiety Disorder
EasyExcessive, difficult-to-control worry about multiple areas of life, present most days for at least 6 months, describes?
Q797 · Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
NEET PGMediumObsessive-compulsive disorder is characterised by?
Q798 · OCD Treatment
MediumThe specific psychological therapy of choice for OCD is?
Q799 · Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
NEET PGMediumRe-experiencing with flashbacks and nightmares, avoidance, hyperarousal, and negative mood following a traumatic event describe?
Q800 · Specific Phobia
EasyA marked, persistent fear of a specific object or situation, leading to avoidance, is a?
Q801 · Conversion Disorder
HardNeurological symptoms such as paralysis or blindness, inconsistent with any organic disease and arising after psychological stress, describe?
Q802 · Delirium Tremens
NEET PGMediumThe most serious complication of alcohol withdrawal, occurring 48 to 72 hours after cessation with confusion, agitation, and autonomic instability, is?
Q803 · Wernicke Encephalopathy
NEET PGHardThe classic triad of Wernicke encephalopathy, due to thiamine deficiency in chronic alcoholism, is?
Q804 · Alcohol Withdrawal Management
MediumThe drug class of choice for managing alcohol withdrawal is?
Q805 · Opioid Overdose
MediumThe antidote for opioid overdose, which reverses respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils, is?
Q806 · Opioid Withdrawal
EasyWhich set of features is typical of opioid withdrawal rather than overdose?
Q807 · Disulfiram
HardDisulfiram, used in alcohol-dependence treatment, works by?
Q808 · ADHD
NEET PGEasyA child shows persistent inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity across settings, impairing school and home life. The likely diagnosis is?
Q809 · Autism Spectrum Disorder
MediumThe core features of autism spectrum disorder are?
Q810 · ADHD Treatment
MediumThe first-line pharmacological treatment for ADHD is?
Q811 · Conduct Disorder
MediumA repetitive pattern of behaviour violating the rights of others or major age-appropriate norms, with aggression, destruction, and theft, in a child is?
Q812 · Nocturnal Enuresis
HardThe first-line management for primary nocturnal enuresis (bedwetting) in a child, after excluding organic causes, is?
Q813 · Delirium
NEET PGMediumAn acute onset of fluctuating consciousness, disorientation, and inattention in a hospitalised elderly patient with an infection is most likely?
Q814 · Delirium versus Dementia
MediumWhich feature best distinguishes delirium from dementia?
Q815 · Alzheimer Disease
NEET PGEasyThe most common cause of dementia is?
Q816 · Dementia with Lewy Bodies
HardDementia with fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, and parkinsonism, with marked sensitivity to antipsychotics, suggests?
Q817 · Cognitive Screening
EasyA commonly used bedside screening tool for cognitive impairment is the?
Q818 · Borderline Personality Disorder
NEET PGMediumA pattern of unstable relationships, unstable self-image, impulsivity, and recurrent self-harm with fear of abandonment describes which personality disorder?
Q819 · Antisocial Personality Disorder
MediumDisregard for and violation of the rights of others, deceitfulness, impulsivity, and lack of remorse describe which personality disorder?
Q820 · Personality Disorder Clusters
HardParanoid, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders belong to which cluster?
Q821 · Anorexia Nervosa
NEET PGMediumAnorexia nervosa is characterised by?
Q822 · Bulimia Nervosa
MediumRecurrent binge eating followed by compensatory behaviours such as self-induced vomiting, typically with a normal or near-normal body weight, describes?
Q823 · SSRIs
NEET PGEasyThe first-line class of antidepressant, generally preferred for its safety in overdose, is?
Q824 · Lithium Toxicity
NEET PGHardEarly signs of lithium toxicity include?
Q825 · Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
NEET PGHardA patient on antipsychotics develops high fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental state, and autonomic instability with raised creatine kinase. This is?
Q826 · Extrapyramidal Side Effects
MediumTypical (first-generation) antipsychotics commonly cause which group of side effects due to dopamine blockade?
Q827 · Clozapine
HardClozapine, used in treatment-resistant schizophrenia, requires regular blood monitoring because of the risk of?
Q828 · Serotonin Syndrome
MediumThe triad of neuromuscular excitability with clonus and hyperreflexia, autonomic instability, and altered mental state after starting or combining serotonergic drugs describes?
Q829 · Electroconvulsive Therapy
NEET PGMediumA strong indication for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is?
Q830 · Benzodiazepine Dependence
EasyWhy are benzodiazepines generally recommended only for short-term use?
Q831 · Imaging Principles
NEET PGEasyWhich imaging modality uses NO ionising radiation?
Q832 · Radiographic Density
EasyOn a plain X-ray, which structure appears the most radio-opaque (whitest)?
Q833 · Ultrasound
NEET PGEasyUltrasound imaging is based on?
Q834 · CT Principles
MediumCT image density is quantified using which scale?
Q835 · MRI Sequences
HardOn a T2-weighted MRI sequence, which appears bright (high signal)?
Q836 · Radiation Safety
NEET PGMediumThe principle of keeping radiation exposure 'As Low As Reasonably Achievable' is known as?
Q837 · Doppler Ultrasound
MediumDoppler ultrasound is particularly useful for assessing?
Q838 · Iodinated Contrast
NEET PGMediumA significant caution for intravenous iodinated contrast, as used in CT, is?
Q839 · Gadolinium
HardGadolinium-based MRI contrast is used with particular caution in severe renal failure because of the risk of?
Q840 · Metformin and Contrast
HardIn a patient on metformin receiving iodinated contrast, the main concern in the presence of renal impairment is?
Q841 · Barium Contraindication
NEET PGMediumBarium contrast is contraindicated when a bowel perforation is suspected because?
Q842 · Imaging in Pregnancy
MediumThe preferred first-line imaging modality in a pregnant patient, when suitable, is?
Q843 · Tension Pneumothorax
NEET PGMediumOn a chest X-ray, a tension pneumothorax classically shows?
Q844 · Pleural Effusion
EasyA pleural effusion on an erect chest X-ray typically shows?
Q845 · Heart Failure
NEET PGMediumWhich chest X-ray features suggest congestive heart failure?
Q846 · Lobar Pneumonia
EasyLobar pneumonia on a chest X-ray typically appears as?
Q847 · Pulmonary Tuberculosis
NEET PGMediumReactivation (post-primary) pulmonary tuberculosis characteristically affects which part of the lungs?
Q848 · Pulmonary Embolism Imaging
HardThe investigation of choice to confirm suspected pulmonary embolism in most patients is?
Q849 · Lobar Collapse
MediumWhich is a sign of lobar collapse (atelectasis) on a chest X-ray?
Q850 · Bowel Obstruction
NEET PGMediumOn an abdominal X-ray, small bowel obstruction is suggested by?
Q851 · Pneumoperitoneum
NEET PGEasyFree gas under the diaphragm on an erect chest or abdominal X-ray indicates?
Q852 · Sigmoid Volvulus
HardA markedly dilated loop of large bowel arising from the pelvis and pointing to the upper abdomen, the 'coffee bean' sign, suggests?
Q853 · Gallstones
NEET PGEasyThe imaging investigation of choice for suspected gallstones is?
Q854 · Appendicitis Imaging
MediumThe preferred imaging in a young child or pregnant woman with suspected appendicitis, to avoid radiation, is?
Q855 · Biliary Imaging
HardThe non-invasive imaging modality of choice to visualise the biliary and pancreatic ducts is?
Q856 · Intussusception Imaging
MediumIn a child with suspected intussusception, what does ultrasound characteristically show, and what is the role of an air or contrast enema?
Q857 · Osteosarcoma
NEET PGHardA 'sunburst' periosteal reaction and Codman's triangle around the knee in an adolescent suggest?
Q858 · Ewing Sarcoma
HardAn 'onion-skin' (lamellated) periosteal reaction on the diaphysis of a long bone in a child suggests?
Q859 · Osteoarthritis
NEET PGEasyWhich set of X-ray findings is typical of osteoarthritis?
Q860 · Scaphoid Imaging
MediumIf a scaphoid fracture is suspected clinically but the initial X-ray is normal, the appropriate next step is?
Q861 · Bone Metastases
MediumWhich primary cancer classically produces osteoblastic (sclerotic) bone metastases?
Q862 · Stress Fracture Imaging
HardA runner has persistent foot pain but a normal X-ray. The most sensitive investigation to detect an early stress fracture is?
Q863 · Acute Stroke Imaging
NEET PGMediumThe first-line imaging in a suspected acute stroke, primarily to exclude haemorrhage before thrombolysis, is?
Q864 · Extradural Haematoma
NEET PGHardA biconvex (lens-shaped) hyperdense collection on CT that does not cross suture lines, after temporal trauma, is?
Q865 · Subdural Haematoma
MediumA crescent-shaped (concave) collection over the cerebral convexity that can cross suture lines is a?
Q866 · Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
NEET PGMediumBlood in the basal cisterns and sulci on CT after a sudden 'thunderclap' headache indicates?
Q867 · Multiple Sclerosis Imaging
HardThe imaging modality of choice for demonstrating demyelinating plaques in suspected multiple sclerosis is?
Q868 · Hydrocephalus
MediumEnlargement of the cerebral ventricles due to excess cerebrospinal fluid is called?
Q869 · First Trimester Dating
EasyThe most accurate ultrasound measurement for dating a pregnancy in the first trimester is?
Q870 · Ectopic Pregnancy Imaging
NEET PGMediumIn a woman with a positive pregnancy test and an empty uterus on ultrasound with free pelvic fluid, the concern is?
Q871 · Renal Stone Imaging
NEET PGMediumThe imaging investigation of choice for suspected renal or ureteric stones is?
Q872 · Testicular Torsion Imaging
HardIn suspected testicular torsion — where imaging must never delay surgery if suspicion is high — Doppler ultrasound characteristically shows?
Q873 · Mammography
NEET PGMediumWhich mammographic feature is most suspicious for malignancy?
Q874 · Breast Imaging by Age
HardThe preferred first-line breast imaging in a woman under 35 with a palpable lump, due to dense breast tissue, is?
Q875 · Bone Scan
NEET PGMediumA radionuclide (technetium) bone scan is particularly useful for?
Q876 · PET Scan
HardAn FDG-PET scan detects tumours and metastases based on?
Q877 · Ventilation-Perfusion Scan
MediumA ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is used mainly to assess?
Q878 · Radioactive Iodine
HardRadioactive iodine (I-131) is used in nuclear medicine mainly to treat and image?
Q879 · Angiography and Embolisation
NEET PGMediumCatheter angiography with embolisation is an interventional radiology technique commonly used to?
Q880 · Image-Guided Biopsy
EasyImage guidance, by ultrasound or CT, during a biopsy or drainage is used mainly to?
Q881 · ASA Classification
NEET PGEasyThe ASA physical status classification is used to?
Q882 · Fasting Guidelines
NEET PGEasyStandard preoperative fasting guidelines for elective surgery typically recommend no solid food for at least?
Q883 · Aspiration Pneumonitis
MediumAspiration of gastric contents during induction of anaesthesia can cause a chemical pneumonitis known as?
Q884 · Mallampati Score
NEET PGMediumThe Mallampati score is used to predict?
Q885 · Premedication
MediumWhich drug is commonly used as premedication to reduce anxiety before anaesthesia?
Q886 · Difficult Airway Prediction
HardWhich of the following predicts a potentially difficult intubation?
Q887 · Confirming Tube Placement
NEET PGMediumThe most reliable method to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement in the trachea is?
Q888 · Rapid Sequence Induction
NEET PGMediumRapid sequence induction, used in patients at high risk of aspiration, classically involves a rapidly acting induction agent and?
Q889 · Laryngeal Mask Airway
EasyA laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is a supraglottic airway device that?
Q890 · Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate
HardIn a 'cannot intubate, cannot oxygenate' emergency where other measures have failed, the final rescue step is?
Q891 · Laryngospasm
MediumLaryngospasm during emergence from anaesthesia is initially managed with?
Q892 · Preoxygenation
EasyPreoxygenation before induction of anaesthesia is performed to?
Q893 · Endobronchial Intubation
HardIf an endotracheal tube is advanced too far, it most commonly enters the?
Q894 · Triad of Anaesthesia
NEET PGEasyThe classic triad of general anaesthesia comprises?
Q895 · Induction Agents
NEET PGEasyThe most commonly used intravenous induction agent, valued for its rapid onset and smooth recovery, is?
Q896 · Ketamine
MediumWhich induction agent is particularly useful in a haemodynamically unstable, hypotensive trauma patient because it tends to maintain blood pressure?
Q897 · Minimum Alveolar Concentration
NEET PGHardThe 'minimum alveolar concentration' (MAC) of an inhalational agent is a measure of its?
Q898 · Suxamethonium
NEET PGMediumSuxamethonium (succinylcholine) is a depolarising muscle relaxant chosen when a rapid onset and short duration are needed. A key adverse effect is?
Q899 · Reversal Agents
MediumNeostigmine is used at the end of anaesthesia to?
Q900 · Intraoperative Awareness
HardThe risk of intraoperative awareness is highest in which situation?
Q901 · Spinal Anaesthesia
NEET PGEasySpinal (subarachnoid) anaesthesia involves injecting local anaesthetic into the?
Q902 · Level of Spinal Injection
NEET PGMediumTo avoid injuring the spinal cord, a spinal anaesthetic is typically administered below which vertebral level, below the conus medullaris?
Q903 · Spinal Hypotension
MediumA common immediate complication of spinal anaesthesia is?
Q904 · Epidural versus Spinal
MediumCompared with spinal anaesthesia, epidural anaesthesia?
Q905 · Post-Dural Puncture Headache
NEET PGHardA positional headache, worse on sitting or standing and better lying down, after spinal anaesthesia or dural puncture is due to?
Q906 · Peripheral Nerve Blocks
EasyPeripheral nerve blocks are increasingly performed with the guidance of?
Q907 · Mechanism of Action
NEET PGMediumLocal anaesthetics produce their effect by?
Q908 · Adrenaline with Local Anaesthetic
NEET PGMediumAdrenaline is added to a local anaesthetic solution mainly to?
Q909 · Local Anaesthetic Systemic Toxicity
NEET PGHardEarly signs of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) include?
Q910 · Lipid Emulsion Rescue
HardThe specific treatment for severe local anaesthetic systemic toxicity, such as cardiac arrest from bupivacaine, is?
Q911 · Maximum Safe Dose
MediumWhy must the maximum safe dose of a local anaesthetic such as lignocaine be calculated by the patient's weight?
Q912 · Pulse Oximetry
NEET PGEasyA pulse oximeter measures?
Q913 · Capnography
MediumA sudden loss of the end-tidal CO2 (capnography) trace during anaesthesia may indicate?
Q914 · Minimum Monitoring Standards
NEET PGEasyWhich is part of the minimum standard monitoring during general anaesthesia?
Q915 · Neuromuscular Monitoring
HardA peripheral nerve stimulator ('train-of-four') is used during anaesthesia to monitor?
Q916 · Temperature Monitoring
MediumWhy is core temperature monitored and maintained during prolonged anaesthesia?
Q917 · Malignant Hyperthermia
NEET PGHardA patient develops a rapidly rising temperature, muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and rising end-tidal CO2 after receiving suxamethonium and a volatile agent. The diagnosis and specific treatment are?
Q918 · Anaphylaxis
NEET PGMediumThe first-line drug for anaphylaxis under anaesthesia, with hypotension, bronchospasm, and rash after a drug, is?
Q919 · Postoperative Nausea and Vomiting
EasyWhich class of drug is commonly used to prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?
Q920 · Suxamethonium Apnoea
HardProlonged paralysis after suxamethonium, due to an inherited deficiency of the enzyme that normally breaks it down, is called?
Q921 · Intraoperative Bronchospasm
MediumIntraoperative bronchospasm, with wheeze, rising airway pressures, and falling saturation, is initially treated with?
Q922 · Oxygen Delivery Devices
NEET PGMediumWhich device delivers a precise, controlled fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2), useful in patients at risk of CO2 retention?
Q923 · Shock Resuscitation
MediumThe initial resuscitation fluid for most patients in hypovolaemic shock is?
Q924 · ARDS Ventilation
HardA ventilated critically ill patient develops severe hypoxaemia with bilateral infiltrates and no cardiac cause. Lung-protective ventilation for this ARDS uses?
Q925 · Sepsis Management
NEET PGMediumEarly management of sepsis includes taking cultures, giving oxygen, IV fluids, and, crucially?
Q926 · Recovery Position
EasyIn an unconscious but breathing patient without suspected spinal injury, the airway is best protected by?
Q927 · WHO Analgesic Ladder
NEET PGEasyThe WHO analgesic ladder recommends starting mild pain management with?
Q928 · Opioid Side Effects
EasyThe most dangerous side effect of opioid analgesics is?
Q929 · Patient-Controlled Analgesia
MediumPatient-controlled analgesia (PCA) improves postoperative pain control by?
Q930 · Neuropathic Pain
HardWhich drugs are first-line for neuropathic pain, such as diabetic neuropathy, rather than standard analgesics?
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